NCLEX-PN
Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023
1. Is head lag expected to be resolved by 4 months of age? Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate?
- A. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension.
- B. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps.
- C. Drowsiness, lethargy, and fatigue.
- D. Neuropathy and tingling in the extremities.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Head lag is a developmental milestone that should be resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate potential developmental delays or muscle weakness. The correct answer, 'Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps,' reflects symptoms that could be associated with developmental delays or underlying health conditions. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension (Choice A) are unlikely to be directly related to head lag. Choices C and D present symptoms that are unrelated to the issue of continued head lag at 6 months of age.
2. When teaching a patient with COPD pulmonary exercises, what should be done?
- A. Teach pursed-lip breathing techniques.
- B. Encourage repetitive heavy lifting exercises to increase strength.
- C. Limit exercises due to respiratory acidosis.
- D. Take breaks every 10-20 minutes during exercises.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to teach pursed-lip breathing techniques. Pursed-lip breathing helps to decrease the volume of air expelled by keeping the airways open longer, making it easier for patients with COPD to breathe out. Encouraging heavy lifting exercises (Choice B) is not suitable for patients with COPD as it can lead to increased shortness of breath. Limiting exercises due to respiratory acidosis (Choice C) is not correct; instead, exercises should be tailored to the patient's tolerance. Taking breaks every 10-20 minutes (Choice D) is not specific to the management of COPD pulmonary exercises.
3. A client had a C5 spinal cord contusion that resulted in quadriplegia. Two days after the injury occurred, the nurse sees his mother crying in the waiting room. The mother asks the nurse whether her son will ever play football again. Which of the following is the best initial response?
- A. "Given time and motivation, your son may regain some function, but I will seek more information from the physician."?
- B. Maintain a calm demeanor and speech pattern while addressing the mother's concerns.
- C. "I'm not sure, but I'll call the physician to discuss this with you promptly."?
- D. "It's not beneficial for your son if you get upset."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best initial response in this situation is to acknowledge the mother's concern, express uncertainty, and offer to obtain more information from the physician. By saying, "I'm not sure, but I'll call the physician to discuss this with you promptly,"? the nurse demonstrates empathy, honesty, and a commitment to providing accurate information. Offering vague reassurance (Choice A) may raise false hopes as outcomes for spinal cord injuries are unpredictable. While maintaining a calm demeanor (Choice B) is important, it does not directly address the mother's immediate need for information. Discouraging the mother from feeling upset (Choice D) is dismissive of her emotions and does not address her question, which is seeking information about her son's prognosis.
4. In alcoholics with anemia:
- A. Pernicious anemia is more common than folic acid deficiency.
- B. Iron deficiency and folic acid deficiency can coexist.
- C. The alcohol interferes with iron absorption.
- D. Oral vitamin replacement is contraindicated.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In alcoholics with anemia, iron deficiency and folic acid deficiency can coexist due to poor dietary intake and malabsorption issues associated with chronic alcohol consumption. Pernicious anemia, primarily related to vitamin B12 deficiency, is not commonly seen in alcoholics. While alcohol can interfere with iron absorption, it is not the sole factor contributing to anemia in alcoholics. Oral vitamin replacement is not contraindicated in alcoholics with anemia; however, it may be less effective due to absorption issues related to alcohol consumption.
5. A nurse has been ordered to set up Buck's traction on a patient's lower extremity due to a femur fracture. Which of the following applies to Buck's traction?
- A. A weight greater than 10 lbs. should be used.
- B. The line of pull is upward at an angle.
- C. The line of pull is straight
- D. A weight greater than 20 lbs. should be used.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the line of pull is straight for Buck's traction. This type of traction is applied to maintain alignment and immobilization of fractures, typically involving the lower extremities. A straight line of pull helps to provide the necessary countertraction to keep the fractured bone in proper alignment. Choices A and D are incorrect because Buck's traction commonly uses a weight range between 5-10 lbs, and using a weight greater than 10 or 20 lbs would not be appropriate or safe. Choice B is incorrect as well since the line of pull for Buck's traction is straight, not upward at an angle.
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