NCLEX-PN
2024 PN NCLEX Questions
1. What causes an older female client's hair to turn gray?
- A. ''A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.''
- B. ''The number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases in the normal aging process.''
- C. ''The skin on the scalp becomes thin, causing moisture to escape.''
- D. ''It is caused by hereditary factors.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.' Graying hair in older adults is primarily due to a decrease in the number of melanocytes responsible for providing pigment and hair color. This reduction in melanin production leads to gray hair. The other choices are incorrect. While it is true that the skin becomes thinner with aging and the number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases, these changes are not directly related to graying hair. Additionally, hereditary factors can influence when graying starts, but they do not cause the graying of hair itself.
2. Which of these is not a symptom of Serotonin Syndrome?
- A. edema
- B. fever
- C. confusion
- D. tremors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome, caused by an excess of serotonin, typically presents with symptoms such as altered mental status (confusion), neuromuscular abnormalities (tremors), and autonomic dysfunction (fever). Edema, which refers to swelling caused by fluid retention in the body tissues, is not a common symptom associated with serotonin syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is 'edema.' Choice A, 'edema,' is the correct answer as it is not typically seen in serotonin syndrome. Choice B, 'fever,' is a symptom of serotonin syndrome, as it can cause autonomic dysfunction. Choice C, 'confusion,' is a common symptom due to altered mental status in serotonin syndrome. Choice D, 'tremors,' is also a common symptom due to neuromuscular abnormalities in serotonin syndrome.
3. When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?
- A. Hysterosalpingography
- B. Semen analysis
- C. Endometrial biopsy
- D. Transvaginal ultrasound
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.
4. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 200 mL/hr
- D. 50 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.
5. When working with multicultural populations, the nurse should consider all of the following when planning care for a client with an altered sexuality pattern except:
- A. some Hispanic and Native-American cultures are very open when discussing sexuality.
- B. some cultures view the postpartum period as a state of impurity.
- C. some women in the African-American culture view childbearing as a validation of their femaleness.
- D. some Native-American women believe monthly menstruation maintains physical well-being and harmony.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When working with multicultural populations, it is essential to understand cultural variations in beliefs and practices related to sexuality. While it is true that some cultures view the postpartum period as a state of impurity and that some women in the African-American culture view childbearing as a validation of their femaleness, the statement 'some Hispanic and Native-American cultures are very open when discussing sexuality' is incorrect. In reality, many cultures, including Hispanic and Native-American cultures, are sometimes hesitant to discuss sexuality. For example, some Navajos, Hispanics, and Orthodox Jews may consider the postpartum period as impure, leading to seclusion of women until the end of bleeding, marked by a ritual bath. Additionally, many Native-American women believe in the importance of monthly menstruation for physical well-being and harmony. Therefore, the statement about Hispanic and Native-American cultures being very open about discussing sexuality is not accurate in the context of working with multicultural populations.
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