a 26 year old single woman is knocked down and robbed while walking her dog one evening three months later she presents at the crisis clinic stating t
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Practice Questions 2024

1. A 26-year-old single woman is knocked down and robbed while walking her dog one evening. Three months later, she presents at the crisis clinic, stating that she cannot put this experience out of her mind. She complains of nightmares, extreme fear of being outside or alone, and difficulty eating and sleeping. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it provides empathy and encourages the client to talk about her experience, which can be therapeutic. This approach validates the client's feelings and offers support. By acknowledging the difficulty and fear experienced by the client, the nurse opens the door for the client to express her emotions and begin the process of coping with the trauma. Choices A, C, and D do not address the emotional impact of the traumatic event or provide an opportunity for the client to express her feelings and concerns. Choice A immediately jumps to medication without exploring other supportive interventions. Choice C focuses on practical solutions without addressing the client's emotional needs. Choice D suggests a drastic solution without considering the client's emotional state or preferences.

2. The client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine. Rifampin can change the color of the urine and body fluid. Teaching the client about these changes is important as the client might think this is a complication. Answer A is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take rifampin with juice. Answer C is incorrect because rifampin should be taken at consistent times, not necessarily before going to bed. Answer D is incorrect as rifampin should be taken regularly as prescribed, not based on symptoms like night sweats.

3. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for removal of a pituitary tumor using the transsphenoidal approach. The nurse should be particularly alert for:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the removal of a pituitary tumor using the transsphenoidal approach, nasal congestion is a significant concern as it can further obstruct the airway. This can be due to mucosal swelling, bleeding, or edema resulting from the surgery. Nasal congestion requires immediate attention to prevent airway compromise. Abdominal tenderness, muscle tetany, and oliguria are not directly associated with the pituitary gland or the transsphenoidal approach, making them incorrect choices. Abdominal tenderness is more common in abdominal or pelvic surgeries due to intra-abdominal issues. Muscle tetany is related to electrolyte imbalances or neuromuscular disorders, not specific to pituitary surgery. Oliguria is a concern in renal-related conditions, not typically in pituitary tumor surgeries.

4. A client recently lost a child due to poisoning. The client tells the nurse, 'I don’t want to make any new friends right now.' This is an example of which of the following indicators of stress?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'sociocultural indicator.' This client's reluctance to make new friends after experiencing a traumatic event like losing a child is a clear sign of sociocultural stress. Sociocultural stress can impact a person's social interactions, relationships, and cultural practices. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A, 'emotional indicator,' would focus on emotional responses directly related to stress. Choice B, 'spiritual indicator,' refers to stress related to spiritual beliefs, practices, or values, which is not evident in this scenario. Choice D, 'intellectual indicator,' is not a recognized category of stress indicators in this context.

5. A two-year-old has been in the hospital for 3 weeks and has seldom seen family members due to isolation precautions. Which of the following hospitalization changes is most likely to be occurring?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Separation anxiety.' Separation anxiety is a common response in young children when they are separated from their primary caregivers for extended periods. In this case, the two-year-old being in the hospital for three weeks and not being able to see family members due to isolation precautions can trigger separation anxiety. 'Guilt' is a feeling of responsibility for wrongdoing, which is not the most likely change occurring in this scenario. 'Trust' involves reliance and confidence in others, not typically associated with prolonged separation from family. 'Shame' is a negative emotion related to feeling disgrace, which is not the most appropriate response in this hospitalization situation.

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