a client has been taking alprazolam xanax for four years to manage anxiety the client reports taking 05 mg four times a day which statement indicates
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NCLEX-PN

Nclex 2024 Questions

1. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Explanation: When discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) after long-term use, it is crucial to taper the dosage gradually to prevent withdrawal symptoms. The correct statement indicates an understanding of this by planning a structured decrease in dosage over time. Choice A is incorrect as drinking alcohol while decreasing Xanax can be dangerous and is not recommended. Choice B is incorrect as abruptly stopping Xanax is not safe and can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as expecting to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medication does not address the need for a gradual tapering process to avoid withdrawal symptoms.

2. The physician has ordered sodium warfarin (Coumadin) for the client with thrombophlebitis. The order should be entered to administer the medication at:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sodium warfarin is typically administered in the late afternoon, around 1700 hours. This timing allows for accurate bleeding times to be drawn in the morning. Administering it at 0900 (choice A) would not align with this schedule and may affect the monitoring of bleeding times. Choice B (1200) is midday, which is not the recommended time for sodium warfarin administration. Choice D (2100) is in the evening, which is also not ideal. Therefore, the correct time for administering sodium warfarin is 1700 (choice C).

3. When assessing a client in crisis, what should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is in crisis, the nurse's priority is to focus on immediate stress reduction. Crisis intervention aims to stabilize the client in the present moment by addressing the most pressing issues. Allowing the client to work through independent problem-solving (Choice A) may not be appropriate during a crisis as they might need immediate support. Completing an in-depth evaluation of stressors (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority during a crisis. Recommending ongoing therapy (Choice D) may be considered later, but the immediate focus should be on reducing the client's stress and stabilizing the situation.

4. Why is the intravenous route potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity. When a drug is administered intravenously, it has 100% bioavailability, entering the bloodstream immediately and increasing the risk of toxicity if not carefully monitored. While IV infiltration (choice A) can cause tissue damage, it is not typically life-threatening. Choice B is incorrect as the speed of administration is not the primary reason for the danger; it is the immediate and full dose reaching the bloodstream. Choice D is incorrect as the popularity of the route does not inherently make it more dangerous.

5. The physician has prescribed tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) 10mg bid. The nurse should teach the client to refrain from eating foods containing tyramine because it may cause:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client eats foods high in tyramine, he might experience malignant hypertension. Tyramine is found in cheese, sour cream, Chianti wine, sherry, beer, pickled herring, liver, canned figs, raisins, bananas, avocados, chocolate, soy sauce, fava beans, and yeast. These episodes are treated with Regitine, an alpha-adrenergic blocking agent. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated to the question: Hyperthermia is excessive body temperature, melanoma is a type of skin cancer, and urinary retention is the inability to empty the bladder.

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