NCLEX-PN
2024 Nclex Questions
1. The client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. The doctor has ordered cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). Which instruction should be given to the client?
- A. "Walk about a mile a day to prevent calcium loss."?
- B. "Increase the fiber in your diet."?
- C. "Report nausea to the doctor immediately."?
- D. "Drink at least eight large glasses of water a day."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) can cause hemorrhagic cystitis, a condition characterized by inflammation of the bladder wall leading to bleeding. To prevent this complication, the client should drink at least eight glasses of water a day. Walking to prevent calcium loss (choice A) and increasing fiber intake (choice B) are not directly related to the side effects of Cytoxan, making them unnecessary instructions in this case. While nausea is a common side effect of chemotherapy, the immediate reporting of nausea to the doctor (choice C) is important but not specifically related to the use of Cytoxan in this scenario.
2. To ensure safety while administering a nitroglycerine patch, what should the nurse do?
- A. Wear gloves
- B. Shave the area where the patch will be applied
- C. Wash the area thoroughly with soap and rinse with hot water
- D. Apply the patch to the buttocks
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To protect herself, the nurse should wear gloves when applying a nitroglycerine patch or cream. Answer B is incorrect because shaving the area where the patch will be applied might abrade the skin, increasing the risk of irritation. Answer C is incorrect because washing with hot water can vasodilate the skin, potentially increasing the absorption of nitroglycerine. Nitroglycerine patches should be applied to areas above the waist, making answer D incorrect as applying it to the buttocks is not recommended.
3. A nurse notes that an elderly client suddenly does not keep appointments and is not wearing appropriate clothing. Which statement by the client raises the suspicion of financial abuse?
- A. "I am having difficulty paying for this new antibiotic the physician prescribed."?
- B. "I am a little short on cash since my daughter moved in to help me."?
- C. "I have not felt like shopping since the weather has gotten worse."?
- D. "People do not realize how difficult it is to make ends meet on a fixed income."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I am a little short on cash since my daughter moved in to help me."? This statement raises suspicion of financial abuse as it suggests a recent change in financial circumstances after the daughter moved in. Financial abuse in elderly clients can be indicated by sudden unexplained financial deficits or changes, such as difficulty paying for necessities despite previously being able to do so. Choices A, C, and D do not directly imply a recent financial change due to external factors, making them less indicative of potential financial abuse. Option B is the most concerning statement that warrants further investigation into possible financial exploitation.
4. A client is admitted with Ewing's sarcoma. Which symptoms would be expected due to this tumor's location?
- A. Hemiplegia
- B. Aphasia
- C. Nausea
- D. Bone pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ewing's sarcoma is a type of bone cancer that primarily affects the bones. Therefore, bone pain would be an expected symptom due to this tumor's location. Hemiplegia, which refers to paralysis on one side of the body, Aphasia, a language disorder, and Nausea are not typical symptoms of Ewing's sarcoma. While Nausea is a common symptom in various conditions, it is not specific to bone cancer like Ewing's sarcoma. Therefore, Bone pain is the most likely symptom associated with Ewing's sarcoma.
5. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?
- A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
- B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
- C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
- D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.
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