Nursing Elites

1. A man reports his wife is constantly cleaning, which interferes with family life. Friends avoid visiting due to feeling uncomfortable. The husband finds her cleaning even at night. The nurse should consult and recommend the husband help with therapy by:

• A. telling his wife to stop cleaning whenever he notices her actions.
• B. making a baseline record of the time the wife spends cleaning.
• C. decreasing the stimuli in the home.
• D. helping his wife with the cleaning.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease the stimuli in the home. The wife's behavior suggests obsessive-compulsive disorder, an anxiety disorder. By reducing stimuli in the environment, such as clutter or triggers that prompt cleaning, it helps in managing the condition and promoting a calmer atmosphere. Option A is incorrect as directly telling the wife to stop can escalate her anxiety. Option B is not the priority initially, as addressing the root cause is more crucial. Option D may reinforce the behavior rather than addressing the underlying issue.

2. The nurse who was not promoted then went to the utility room and slammed several cupboard doors while looking for Kleenex. This behavior exemplifies:

• A. displacement.
• B. sublimation
• C. conversion.
• D. reaction formation.

Correct answer: A.

Rationale: Displacement unconsciously transfers emotions associated with a person, object, or situation to another less threatening person, object, or situation. In this scenario, the nurse slammed doors instead of expressing anger towards the promoted nurse or the administrator who made the promotion decision. Sublimation is the unconscious process of substituting constructive activity for unacceptable impulses. Since slamming cupboard doors is not a constructive activity, this choice is incorrect. Conversion involves transforming anxiety into physical symptoms, which is not demonstrated in the given behavior. Reaction formation keeps unacceptable feelings or behaviors out of awareness by displaying the opposite feeling or behavior, which is not the case here.

3. Incidences of child abuse appear to be higher in the African-American community and might be explained by:

• A. the increased number of single-parent households in African-American communities
• B. more single-parent households in African-American communities
• C. stricter child-rearing practices in African-American households
• D. a higher occurrence of rage in African Americans

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Child abuse is often associated with lower socioeconomic status and single-parent households due to increased stress and fewer support systems. Choice A is correct as single-parent households can face more challenges leading to a higher risk of child abuse. Choice B is the correct answer as it aligns with the risk factors associated with child abuse. Choice C is incorrect because there is no direct correlation between stricter child-rearing practices and child abuse rates. Choice D is incorrect because attributing child abuse to a higher occurrence of rage in African Americans is a stereotype and lacks evidence.

4. The client returns to the unit from surgery with a blood pressure of 90/50, pulse 132, respirations 30. Which action by the nurse should receive priority?

• A. Continue monitoring the vital signs
• B. Contact the physician
• C. Ask the client how they feel
• D. Ask the LPN to continue post-op care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to contact the physician immediately due to the client's abnormal vital signs. A blood pressure of 90/50, pulse of 132, and respirations of 30 indicate instability and require prompt medical attention. Continuing to monitor vital signs, as in choice A, may lead to a delay in necessary interventions. Asking the client how they feel, as in choice C, provides subjective data and does not address the urgent need for medical intervention. Involving the LPN, as in choice D, is not appropriate in this critical situation where the client's condition is unstable and requires immediate physician assessment and intervention.

5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

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