NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. A central venous pressure reading of 11cm/H(2)O of an IV of normal saline is determined by the nurse caring for the patient. The patient has a diagnosis of pericarditis. Which of the following is the most applicable?
- A. The patient has a condition of hypovolemia.
- B. Not enough fluid has been given to the patient.
- C. Pericarditis may cause pressures greater than 10cm/H(2)O with testing of CVP.
- D. The patient may have a condition of arteriosclerosis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A central venous pressure reading above 10cm/H(2)O may indicate a condition of pericarditis, as the inflammation and fluid accumulation around the heart can lead to elevated pressures. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypovolemia would typically result in lower CVP readings, not higher. Not enough fluid given would also lead to lower CVP levels. Arteriosclerosis is not directly related to CVP readings in the context of pericarditis.
2. The client has been taking divalproex (Depakote) for the management of bipolar disorder. The nurse should give priority to monitoring which laboratory test?
- A. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
- B. Serum glucose
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Serum electrolytes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Monitoring ALT levels is crucial when a patient is taking divalproex (Depakote) due to the risk of drug-induced hepatitis. Elevated ALT levels indicate liver damage or disorders, which can be a side effect of Depakote. Serum glucose (choice B) is not the priority for monitoring in this case, as the medication does not directly affect glucose levels. Serum creatinine (choice C) is not the most relevant test to monitor for Depakote use; it primarily assesses kidney function. Serum electrolytes (choice D) are important but do not take precedence over monitoring ALT levels when a patient is on Depakote.
3. A client with sleep apnea has been ordered a CPAP machine. Which action could the RN delegate to a nursing assistant?
- A. Reminding the client to apply the CPAP at bedtime
- B. Obtaining every three-hour oxygen saturation levels
- C. Teaching the client how to turn on the CPAP machine
- D. Assessing for fatigue or depression caused by poor sleep
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is reminding the client to apply the CPAP at bedtime. This task can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant as it involves a simple and routine reminder. Option B, obtaining oxygen saturation levels, requires a higher level of training and interpretation of results, making it more appropriate for an RN. Option C, teaching the client how to turn on the CPAP machine, involves educating the client and ensuring proper use of medical equipment, which is within the RN's scope of practice. Option D, assessing for fatigue or depression, requires a comprehensive evaluation that involves interpreting symptoms and identifying underlying causes, making it more suitable for an RN to address.
4. A client is admitted for observation following an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. A bystander stated that he lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. On admission, the client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 14. The GCS is now 12. The nurse should:
- A. Re-assess in 15 minutes
- B. Stimulate the client with a sternal rub
- C. Administer Tylenol with codeine for a headache
- D. Notify the physician
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score from 14 to 12 indicates a significant neurological change in the client's condition. This change can be indicative of a deterioration in the client's neurological status, possibly due to intracranial bleeding or swelling. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Re-assessing in 15 minutes or stimulating the client with a sternal rub are not appropriate actions in this situation as they do not address the underlying cause of the decrease in GCS. Administering Tylenol with codeine for a headache is also not recommended without further assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.
5. The nurse is checking laboratory values on a patient who has crackling rales in the lower lobes, 2+ pitting edema, and dyspnea with minimal exertion. Which of the following laboratory values does the nurse expect to be abnormal?
- A. Potassium.
- B. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP).
- C. C-reactive protein (CRP).
- D. Platelets.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest heart failure. BNP is a neurohormone released from the ventricles due to increased pressure and stretch, as seen in heart failure. A BNP level greater than 51 pg/mL is often associated with mild heart failure, with higher levels indicating more severe heart failure. Potassium levels are not typically affected by heart failure. CRP is an inflammation indicator used to predict coronary artery disease risk, not directly related to heart failure in this case. The client's symptoms do not suggest bleeding or clotting abnormalities associated with platelet count issues, making platelets an unlikely abnormal value.
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