Nursing Elites

1. Why is it often necessary to draw a complete blood count and differential (CBC/differential) when a client is being treated with an antiepileptic drug (AED)?

• A. The hematocrit is adversely affected due to increased vascular volume.
• B. AEDs can lead to blood dyscrasia as a side effect.
• C. AEDs may cause aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia.
• D. Some AEDs induce white blood cell reduction.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is being treated with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs), it is essential to monitor for potential side effects on blood parameters. Some AEDs can lead to blood dyscrasia, which includes conditions like aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia. Therefore, drawing a complete blood count and differential helps in identifying these adverse effects early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary concern when monitoring blood parameters in clients on AEDs is the risk of blood dyscrasia, not changes in hematocrit due to vascular volume, white blood cell reduction, or immune modulation.

2. A 20-year-old obese female client is preparing to have gastric bypass surgery for weight loss. She says to the nurse, 'I need this surgery because nothing else I have done has helped me to lose weight.' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. "If you eat less, you can save some money."?
• B. "Exercise is a healthier way to lose weight."?
• C. "You should try the Atkins diet first."?
• D. "I respect your decision to choose surgery."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse is to show respect and empathy towards the client's decision. Choosing surgery for weight loss is a significant decision, and acknowledging and respecting this choice is crucial in providing patient-centered care. Option D is the correct answer as it validates the client's decision and shows support. Options A, B, and C are all inappropriate as they do not address the client's feelings, lack empathy, and can be considered insensitive and unprofessional.

3. Which of the following medications is not classified as a neuromuscular blocker?

• A. Anectine
• B. Pavulon
• C. Pitressin
• D. Mivacron

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Pitressin. Pitressin is a hormone replacement medication and is not classified as a neuromuscular blocker. Choices A, B, and D (Anectine, Pavulon, Mivacron) are neuromuscular blockers used during anesthesia to induce muscle relaxation for various procedures. Anectine is also known as succinylcholine, Pavulon is rocuronium, and Mivacron is mivacurium. These medications act on the neuromuscular junction to block the transmission of nerve impulses, leading to muscle relaxation.

4. Which of the following infant behaviors demonstrates the concept of object permanence?

• A. The infant cries when his mother leaves the room.
• B. The infant looks at the floor to find a toy that he was playing with and dropped.
• C. The infant picks up another toy after the one he was playing with rolls under the couch.
• D. The infant participates in a game of patty-cake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Object permanence occurs when the infant learns that something or someone still exists even though they might not be able to see it or them. This typically develops between 9 and 10 months of age. The correct answer, 'The infant looks at the floor to find a toy that he was playing with and dropped,' demonstrates object permanence as the infant understands that the toy still exists even though it is temporarily out of sight. Choices A and C do not directly relate to object permanence as the behaviors described do not necessarily indicate an understanding of objects existing when out of sight. Choice D is incorrect as participating in a game of patty-cake does not involve demonstrating object permanence. Peek-a-boo is a more suitable example of a game that demonstrates object permanence, as the infant continues to look for the hidden face, understanding that it still exists even though temporarily unseen.

5. If a client is suffering from thyroid storm, the PN can expect to find on assessment:

• A. tachycardia and hyperthermia.
• B. bradycardia and hypothermia.
• C. a large goiter.
• D. a calm, quiet client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In thyroid storm, there is an excess of thyroxine, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and hyperthermia (increased body temperature). Atrial fibrillation and palpitations are also commonly observed. Choices B and C are more indicative of hypothyroidism, where the thyroid is underactive, leading to bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypothermia (decreased body temperature), and the development of a large goiter. Choice D, a calm, quiet client, is unlikely in a thyroid storm where the individual would typically present with symptoms of agitation and restlessness due to the hypermetabolic state.

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