Nursing Elites

1. Why is it often necessary to draw a complete blood count and differential (CBC/differential) when a client is being treated with an antiepileptic drug (AED)?

• A. The hematocrit is adversely affected due to increased vascular volume.
• B. AEDs can lead to blood dyscrasia as a side effect.
• C. AEDs may cause aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia.
• D. Some AEDs induce white blood cell reduction.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is being treated with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs), it is essential to monitor for potential side effects on blood parameters. Some AEDs can lead to blood dyscrasia, which includes conditions like aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia. Therefore, drawing a complete blood count and differential helps in identifying these adverse effects early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary concern when monitoring blood parameters in clients on AEDs is the risk of blood dyscrasia, not changes in hematocrit due to vascular volume, white blood cell reduction, or immune modulation.

2. A client who has a known history of cardiac problems and is still smoking enters the clinic complaining of sudden onset of sharp, stabbing pain that intensifies with a deep breath. The pain is occurring on only one side and can be isolated upon general assessment. The nurse concludes that this description is most likely caused by:

• A. pleurisy.
• B. pleural effusion.
• C. atelectasis.
• D. tuberculosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pleurisy is an inflammation of the pleura and is often accompanied by an abrupt onset of pain. Symptoms of pleurisy include sudden sharp, stabbing pain that is usually unilateral and localized to a specific portion of the chest. The pain can be exacerbated by deep breathing. In contrast, pleural effusion is characterized by fluid accumulation in the pleural space, not sharp pain. Atelectasis involves collapse or closure of a lung leading to reduced gas exchange, but it does not typically present with sharp, stabbing pain. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs but does not typically manifest with sudden sharp pain exacerbated by deep breathing.

3. Teaching the client with gonorrhea how to prevent reinfection and further spread is an example of

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. primary health care prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. This type of prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease by early detection and treatment. In the case of gonorrhea, teaching the client how to prevent reinfection and further spread falls under secondary prevention because it aims to reduce the prevalence and morbidity of the disease. Choice A (primary prevention) involves measures to prevent the disease from occurring in the first place, such as vaccination. Choice C (tertiary prevention) focuses on managing the long-term consequences of a disease to prevent complications. Choice D (primary health care prevention) is not a recognized term in prevention strategies.

4. Which of the following classifications of medications is used to help decrease tremors for clients with hyperthyroidism?

• A. Steroids
• B. Anticonvulsants
• C. Beta blockers
• D. Iodine compounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Beta blockers. Beta blockers are commonly used to help decrease tremors in clients with hyperthyroidism by blocking the action of adrenaline. This helps to control symptoms such as rapid heart rate, tremors, and anxiety. Steroids (Choice A) are not typically used to treat tremors in hyperthyroidism. Anticonvulsants (Choice B) are primarily used to control seizures and are not the first-line treatment for tremors in hyperthyroidism. Iodine compounds (Choice D) are used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism by reducing the production of thyroid hormones but are not specifically indicated for tremor relief.

5. What task should the RN perform first?

• A. Changing a burn dressing that is scheduled every four hours.
• B. Doing pinsite care on a client in skeletal traction ordered TID.
• C. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic about diet and exercise.
• D. Assessing a newly admitted client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess a newly admitted client first. When a client is newly admitted, it is crucial to perform an assessment promptly. The initial assessment and establishment of a care plan should be completed within a specific timeframe to ensure the client's needs are met effectively. Choices A, B, and C involve important tasks but should be prioritized after the initial assessment of the newly admitted client to ensure timely and appropriate care delivery. Changing a burn dressing (Choice A) and doing pinsite care on a client in skeletal traction (Choice B) are time-sensitive tasks but can be safely delayed briefly to conduct the initial assessment. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic about diet and exercise (Choice C) is important for the client's long-term care but can be scheduled after the immediate needs assessment of the newly admitted client.

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