Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following conditions places a client at risk for developing cirrhosis?

• A. Type I diabetes
• B. Alcoholism
• C. Leukemia
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Alcoholism places a client at risk for developing cirrhosis due to the liver damage caused by excessive alcohol consumption. Type I diabetes, leukemia, and glaucoma are not directly associated with cirrhosis. While diabetes can lead to other health complications, it does not directly cause cirrhosis. Leukemia is a type of blood cancer that does not affect the liver in a way that leads to cirrhosis. Glaucoma is an eye condition that has no direct link to cirrhosis.

2. A female client complains to the nurse at the health department that she has fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness. Her history reveals no significant medical problems. She states that she is always on a fad diet without any vitamin supplements. Which tests should the nurse expect the client to have first?

• A. peptic ulcer studies
• B. complete blood count, including hematocrit and hemoglobin
• C. genetic testing
• D. hemoglobin electrophoresis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform a complete blood count, including hematocrit and hemoglobin, as the initial tests to assess the client's symptoms related to fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness. These symptoms can be indicative of anemia, which can be caused by nutritional deficiencies due to fad dieting without vitamin supplements. Peptic ulcer studies, genetic testing, and hemoglobin electrophoresis are not the most appropriate initial tests for the client's presenting symptoms and history. Peptic ulcer studies are not relevant to the client's symptoms. Genetic testing is not indicated based on the client's presentation and history. Hemoglobin electrophoresis is used to diagnose specific types of anemia and is not the first-line test in this scenario. Further testing decisions should be based on the results of the initial tests, the client's history, and other relevant factors.

3. Acyclovir is the drug of choice for:

• A. HIV
• B. HSV 1 and 2 and VZV
• C. CMV
• D. influenza A viruses

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir (Zovirax) is specifically used to treat infections caused by herpes simplex virus types 1 and 2 (HSV-1 and HSV-2) and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). These include conditions like cold sores, genital herpes, and shingles. Acyclovir works by inhibiting viral DNA replication, leading to the formation of shorter, ineffective DNA chains. It is important to note that acyclovir is not effective against other viruses like HIV, cytomegalovirus (CMV), or influenza A viruses. Therefore, the correct answer is HSV 1 and 2 and VZV.

4. Which of the following needs immediate medical attention and emergency intervention? The client who:

• A. complains of sharp pain upon taking a deep breath and excessive coughing.
• B. exhibits yellow, productive sputum, low-grade fever, and crackles.
• C. has a shift of the trachea to the left, with no breath sounds on the right.
• D. has asthma and complains of an inability to catch her breath after exercise.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is considered a medical emergency. The respiratory system is severely compromised, and venous return to the heart is affected. The mediastinal shift is to the unaffected side, indicating a critical situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration. This condition can rapidly progress to a life-threatening state, necessitating prompt medical attention. Choices A, B, and D do not present with life-threatening conditions requiring emergency intervention. Choice A mentions symptoms of pleurisy, which may be painful but not immediately life-threatening. Choice B describes symptoms of bronchitis, which may require medical attention but not of an emergent nature. Choice D reflects a common complaint in asthma but does not suggest an immediate life-threatening situation unless severe respiratory distress is present.

5. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Effective Heparin therapy should halt the process of intravascular coagulation, leading to increased availability of fibrinogen. Heparin interferes with thrombin-induced conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Therefore, an increased fibrinogen level indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy. While increased platelet count and decreased bleeding are positive outcomes, the specific indicator for Heparin therapy response is the increase in fibrinogen level. Decreased fibrin split products would also be a positive response, but an increase in fibrinogen directly reflects the impact of Heparin therapy.

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