Nursing Elites

1. A nurse has been ordered to set up Buck's traction on a patient's lower extremity due to a femur fracture. Which of the following applies to Buck's traction?

• A. A weight greater than 10 lbs. should be used.
• B. The line of pull is upward at an angle.
• C. The line of pull is straight
• D. A weight greater than 20 lbs. should be used.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the line of pull is straight for Buck's traction. This type of traction is applied to maintain alignment and immobilization of fractures, typically involving the lower extremities. A straight line of pull helps to provide the necessary countertraction to keep the fractured bone in proper alignment. Choices A and D are incorrect because Buck's traction commonly uses a weight range between 5-10 lbs, and using a weight greater than 10 or 20 lbs would not be appropriate or safe. Choice B is incorrect as well since the line of pull for Buck's traction is straight, not upward at an angle.

2. While assessing a patient in the ICU, a nurse observes signs of a weak pulse, quick respiration, acetone breath, and nausea. Which of the following conditions is most likely occurring?

• A. Hypoglycemic patient
• B. Hyperglycemic patient
• C. Cardiac arrest
• D. End-stage renal failure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a hyperglycemic patient. The signs described - weak pulse, quick respiration, acetone breath, and nausea - are indicative of hyperglycemia. A hypoglycemic patient would typically present with different signs such as pale skin, sweating, and confusion. Cardiac arrest would manifest with sudden loss of heart function and consciousness, not the signs described. End-stage renal failure would present with symptoms related to kidney dysfunction like edema, fatigue, and changes in urine output, which are not mentioned in the scenario.

3. When a client informs the nurse that he is experiencing hypoglycemia, the nurse provides immediate intervention by providing:

• A. one commercially prepared glucose tablet
• B. two hard candies
• C. 4-6 ounces of fruit juice
• D. 2-3 teaspoons of honey

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct immediate intervention for hypoglycemia is to provide 10-15 grams of fast-acting simple carbohydrates orally if the client is conscious and able to swallow. This can be achieved by giving 2-3 teaspoons of honey. Honey is a quick source of simple sugars that can rapidly raise blood glucose levels. Commercially prepared glucose tablets or 4-6 ounces of fruit juice are also appropriate options. However, adding sugar to fruit juice is unnecessary as the natural fruit sugar in juice already provides enough simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels. Hard candies are not the best choice for immediate intervention in hypoglycemia as they may not provide a sufficient amount of fast-acting carbohydrates needed to raise blood sugar levels quickly.

4. The client diagnosed with end-stage liver disease has completed an advance directive and a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) document and wishes to receive palliative care. Which of the following would correspond to the client's wish for comfort care?

• A. Positioning frequently to prevent skin breakdown and providing pain management and other comfort measures
• B. Carrying out vigorous resuscitation efforts if the client were to stop breathing, but no resuscitation if the heart stops beating
• C. Providing intravenous fluids when the client becomes dehydrated
• D. Providing total parenteral nutrition (TPN) if the client is not able to eat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Palliative care includes measures to prevent skin breakdown, pain management, and management of other symptoms that cause discomfort, as well as encouraging contact with family and friends. A DNR request precludes all resuscitative efforts related to respiratory or cardiac arrest, making choice B incorrect. Dehydration is a natural part of the dying process, so providing intravenous fluids as in choice C would not align with the client's wish for comfort care. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as in choice D is an invasive procedure meant to prolong life and is not part of palliative care, which focuses on improving quality of life rather than extending it.

5. The physician wants to know if a client is tolerating their total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following laboratory tests is likely to be ordered?

• A. triglyceride level
• B. liver function tests
• C. a glucose tolerance test
• D. a complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The liver is crucial in processing nutrients and medications received through total parenteral nutrition. Liver function tests assess various enzymes produced by the liver, including prothrombin time/partial prothrombin time, serum glutamic oxaloacetic and pyruvic transaminases, gamma glutamyl transpeptidase, albumin, and alkaline phosphatase. Monitoring these enzymes can help determine if the liver is functioning properly to metabolize the nutrients from TPN. Triglyceride levels (Choice A) primarily evaluate the body's ability to clear fats, not specifically related to TPN tolerance. A glucose tolerance test (Choice C) is used to diagnose diabetes by measuring blood glucose levels after ingesting a glucose-rich solution, not directly related to TPN tolerance. A complete blood count (Choice D) assesses blood components such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but does not provide specific information about TPN tolerance.

Similar Questions