Nursing Elites

1. Which NSAID is comparable to morphine in efficacy?

• A. Feldene
• B. Stodal
• C. Toradol
• D. Elavil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Toradol. Toradol is the first injectable NSAID that has been found to be comparable to morphine in terms of efficacy. Feldene (choice A) is not known for being comparable to morphine in efficacy. Stodal (choice B) is a homeopathic cough syrup and not an NSAID. Elavil (choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant and not an NSAID, so it is not comparable to morphine in efficacy. Therefore, Toradol is the most appropriate choice as it matches the description provided in the question.

2. Which of the following foods can cause diarrhea when consumed by a client with an ileostomy?

• A. eggs
• B. coffee
• C. fish
• D. garlic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is coffee. Coffee can cause diarrhea in clients with an ileostomy due to its stimulating effect on the digestive system, leading to increased bowel movements. Eggs, fish, and garlic are less likely to cause diarrhea in individuals with an ileostomy. However, they may contribute to odor due to the way they are digested and broken down in the body, affecting the smell of stool output but not necessarily causing diarrhea.

3. Following a classic cholecystectomy resection for multiple stones, the PACU nurse observes serosanguinous drainage on the dressing. The most appropriate intervention is to:

• A. notify the physician of the drainage.
• B. change the dressing.
• C. reinforce the dressing.
• D. apply an abdominal binder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Serosanguinous drainage is expected after a classic cholecystectomy resection. The appropriate intervention is to reinforce the dressing to maintain pressure and promote clot formation. Changing the dressing prematurely increases the risk of infection as it disturbs the wound. Applying an abdominal binder is not indicated as it can interfere with visualizing the dressing and assessing for any signs of bleeding or infection. Notifying the physician is not necessary at this point unless there are signs of excessive bleeding or other concerning symptoms.

4. All of the following interventions should be performed when fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress except:

• A. Increase maternal fluids.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Decrease maternal fluids.
• D. Turn the mother.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress, interventions are aimed at improving oxygenation to the fetus. Increasing maternal fluids helps improve placental perfusion and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Administering oxygen also aids in increasing oxygen supply to the fetus. Turning the mother can help relieve pressure on the vena cava, optimizing blood flow to the placenta. Therefore, decreasing maternal fluids would not be performed as it can further compromise placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation, making it the exception. Decreasing maternal fluids could potentially exacerbate fetal distress by reducing oxygen delivery and nutrient supply to the fetus, which is contrary to the goal of managing fetal distress.

5. How many temporary teeth should the nurse expect to find in a 5-year-old client's mouth?

• A. up to 10
• B. up to 15
• C. up to 20
• D. up to 32

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A 5-year-old child can have up to 20 temporary (deciduous or baby) teeth. The first tooth usually erupts by age 6 months, and the last by age 30 months. All temporary teeth are usually shed between 6 and 13 years of age. Therefore, a 5-year-old child should have up to 20 temporary teeth. The correct answer is 'up to 20.' Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the correct number of temporary teeth in a 5-year-old child's mouth is up to 20, not 10, 15, or 32.

Similar Questions