Nursing Elites

1. The advanced directive in a client's chart is dated August 12, 1998. The client's daughter produces a Power of Attorney for Health Care, dated 2003, which contains different care directions. What should the nurse do?

• A. Follow the 1998 version because it's part of the legal chart.
• B. Follow the 1998 version because the physician's code order is based on it.
• C. Follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately.
• D. Follow neither until clarified by the unit manager.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The document dated 2003 supersedes the previous version and should be used as a basis for care directions. The nurse should follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately to ensure that the most current care directions are followed. Choices A and B are incorrect because the 1998 version is now outdated, and the nurse should not rely on it for care decisions. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should not delay following the updated document, and seeking clarification from the unit manager can lead to avoidable delays in care.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client. Which of the following nursing actions should be taken first?

• A. Performing a physical assessment prior to administration
• B. Obtaining the most recent lab values regarding renal function
• C. Reviewing peaks and troughs for the past few days
• D. Ensuring the client is not allergic to the medication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before administering any medication, including IV Vancomycin, it is crucial to ensure that the client is not allergic to the medication. This is the most critical action to prevent any potential allergic reactions. While performing a physical assessment is important, it may not be as time-sensitive as checking for allergies. Obtaining lab values related to renal function is also significant with Vancomycin due to its potential nephrotoxicity, but ensuring the client's safety by checking for allergies takes precedence. Reviewing peaks and troughs is important for monitoring drug levels, but it is a secondary step compared to checking for allergies prior to administration.

3. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?

• A. The cause and mode of transmission are well understood.
• B. There is no known cure for the disease.
• C. When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
• D. Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.

4. Which of the following neurological disorders is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs?

• A. epilepsy
• B. Parkinson's
• C. multiple sclerosis
• D. Huntington's chorea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Huntington's chorea is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs, known as chorea. This disorder is caused by a genetic mutation affecting specific brain cells. Epilepsy presents with seizures, Parkinson's with tremors and rigidity, and multiple sclerosis with central nervous system issues. The specific description of writhing and twisting movements aligns with Huntington's chorea, making it the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they describe different neurological disorders with distinct symptoms that do not match the writhing, twisting movements characteristic of Huntington's chorea.

5. For a client requiring total oral care, it is important for the nurse to:

• A. assemble all equipment, assist the client to a semi-Fowler's position, and place a towel on his chest.
• B. place the client in Fowler's position, prepare the equipment, and instruct the client what to do.
• C. assemble all equipment, place the client in a side-lying position, and place a towel under his chin.
• D. use gloves and clean the client's mouth, including the tongue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To provide total oral care to a client, the nurse should first assemble all necessary equipment. Placing the client in a side-lying position helps fluids to easily flow out or pool in the side of the mouth for suctioning, thus preventing aspiration. Additionally, placing a towel under the client's chin and a curved basin against the chin helps to maintain cleanliness during the procedure. Choice A is incorrect because the client should be placed in a side-lying position, not a semi-Fowler's position which is used for respiratory issues. Choice B is incorrect as it does not emphasize the importance of proper positioning for effective oral care. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the procedure by focusing only on cleaning the mouth without considering the importance of positioning and preparation.

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