Nursing Elites

1. The advanced directive in a client's chart is dated August 12, 1998. The client's daughter produces a Power of Attorney for Health Care, dated 2003, which contains different care directions. What should the nurse do?

• A. Follow the 1998 version because it's part of the legal chart.
• B. Follow the 1998 version because the physician's code order is based on it.
• C. Follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately.
• D. Follow neither until clarified by the unit manager.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The document dated 2003 supersedes the previous version and should be used as a basis for care directions. The nurse should follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately to ensure that the most current care directions are followed. Choices A and B are incorrect because the 1998 version is now outdated, and the nurse should not rely on it for care decisions. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should not delay following the updated document, and seeking clarification from the unit manager can lead to avoidable delays in care.

2. A nurse sees another nurse changing an intravenous (IV) solution because the wrong solution is infusing into the client. The nurse who changed the IV solution does not report the error. What should the nurse who observed the error do first?

• A. Report the nurse who changed the IV solution
• B. Document the error in the client's chart
• C. Call the client's health care provider
• D. Ask the nurse whether she intends to report the error

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first thing the nurse who observed the error should do is ask the nurse whether she intends to report the error. Ensuring client safety is paramount, and all errors must be reported to the health care provider, but this is not the initial action. The client should also be assessed immediately. The nurse who discovered the error should complete an incident report and make appropriate documentation in the client's record. If the nurse who observed the error finds out that it will not be reported, it may be necessary to involve the supervisor. Therefore, the best course of action initially is to communicate with the nurse who made the error to understand her intentions regarding reporting.

3. When a client with a major burn experiences body image disturbance, which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention classification?

• A. grief work facilitation
• B. vital signs monitoring
• C. medication administration: skin
• D. anxiety reduction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'grief work facilitation' because it is a nursing intervention classification specifically designed to address disturbed body image in burn clients. The expected outcome of this intervention is grief resolution, which can help the client cope with the body image changes resulting from the burn. Choice B, 'vital signs monitoring,' is not the appropriate intervention for body image disturbance in burn clients. Vital signs monitoring is typically used for assessing physiological parameters like blood pressure, pulse rate, and temperature. Choice C, 'medication administration: skin,' is more focused on treating skin-related issues rather than addressing body image disturbance. It involves the administration of medications to promote skin healing and integrity. Choice D, 'anxiety reduction,' is aimed at managing anxiety in clients with major burns and is not specifically targeted at addressing body image disturbance. While anxiety may be a common emotional response to burns, the most appropriate intervention for body image disturbance in this scenario is 'grief work facilitation.'

4. When a client needs oxygen therapy, what is the highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula?

• A. 2 liters/minute
• B. 4 liters/minute
• C. 6 liters/minute
• D. 8 liters/minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 6 liters/minute. When a client requires oxygen therapy, the maximum flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula is 6 liters/minute. Nasal cannula can effectively deliver oxygen up to 6 liters/minute. Flow rates exceeding 6 liters/minute may lead to drying of the nasal passages and discomfort for the client. Higher flow rates, like 8 liters/minute, should be administered using a mask to ensure sufficient oxygenation. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they indicate flow rates that surpass the recommended maximum for nasal cannula delivery.

5. Which situation is an example of the use of evidence-based practice in the delivery of client care?

• A. Encouraging a client who has had a stroke to consume thickened liquids and soft foods
• B. Picking up a dislodged radiation implant with long-handled forceps and placing it in a lead container to minimize radiation exposure
• C. Pouring 1 to 2 mL of sterile solution that will be used for wound cleansing into a plastic-lined waste receptacle before pouring the solution into a sterile basin
• D. Blowing on a fingerstick site to dry it after cleaning the site with an alcohol swab

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Evidence-based practice is an approach that integrates client preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care. Pouring sterile solution into a plastic-lined waste receptacle before using it for wound cleansing reflects evidence-based practice by preventing the entrance of harmful bacteria into the wound. Option A is incorrect because encouraging a stroke client to consume thickened liquids and soft foods is appropriate, not thin liquids and foods that pose a choking risk. Option B is incorrect as picking up a radiation implant with long-handled forceps to minimize radiation exposure is a safety measure, not evidence-based practice. Option D is incorrect because blowing on a fingerstick site after cleaning can recontaminate the site, which goes against best practices in infection control.

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