NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet
1. Which of the following medications should be held 24–48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?
- A. Lasix (furosemide)
- B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
- C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
- D. Dilantin (phenytoin)
Correct answer: Dilantin (phenytoin)
Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24–48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.
2. Ashley and her boyfriend Chris, both 19 years old, are transported to the Emergency Department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. Chris is badly hurt, but Ashley has no apparent injuries, though she appears confused and has trouble focusing on what is going on around her. She complains of dizziness and nausea. Her pulse is rapid, and she is hyperventilating. The nurse should assess Ashley’s level of anxiety as:
- A. mild.
- B. moderate.
- C. severe.
- D. panic.
Correct answer: C: severe.
Rationale: Based on the symptoms described, Ashley's level of anxiety should be assessed as severe. In severe anxiety, individuals have difficulty solving problems and understanding their environment. They often exhibit somatic symptoms like dizziness, nausea, rapid pulse, and hyperventilation. In contrast, mild anxiety may lead to mild discomfort or even enhanced performance. Moderate anxiety involves grasping less information, mild difficulty in problem-solving, and slight changes in vital signs. Panic, on the other hand, is characterized by markedly disturbed behavior and a potential loss of touch with reality. Therefore, in Ashley's case, the presence of somatic symptoms and vital sign changes indicates severe anxiety.
3. How far should the enema tube be inserted for a client to have a flatus-reducing enema?
- A. 4 inches.
- B. 6 inches.
- C. 2 inches.
- D. 8 inches.
Correct answer: 4 inches.
Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the enema tube 4 inches. Enema tubing must be passed beyond the internal sphincter, which is typically around 4 inches in an adult. Inserting the tube only 2 inches is not far enough to reach this point. On the other hand, inserting the tube 6 or 8 inches is too far and might cause trauma to the bowel, which is unnecessary for a flatus-reducing enema. Therefore, the correct insertion depth of the enema tube is crucial to ensure effectiveness and safety in providing the intended treatment.
4. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?
- A. The cause and mode of transmission are well understood.
- B. There is no known cure for the disease.
- C. When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
- D. Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.
Correct answer: Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.
Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.
5. A client is having an abortion in a women’s clinic, and the nurse caring for the client does not think the reasoning is appropriate. The nurse asks, “Are you sure you want to do this? It can’t be undone. Have you read about your other options? Adoption is always a good choice.” The client states she understands all options and is comfortable with her choice. The nurse nods and leaves the room to discuss the procedure with the physician. Which client right did the nurse violate with her actions?
- A. the client’s right to make personal health decisions without interference, as the nurse tried to sway the client’s decision-making and healthcare choice in the direction of not having an abortion
- B. the client’s right to be left alone without unsolicited attention, as the nurse inserted herself in the client’s healthcare scenario and offered uninvited advice
- C. the client’s right to confidentiality, as the nurse is talking to the physician about the client and the abortion
- D. the client’s right to respectful care, as the nurse clearly made it known that she did not approve of the abortion
Correct answer: the client’s right to make personal health decisions without interference, as the nurse tried to sway the client’s decision-making and healthcare choice in the direction of not having an abortion
Rationale: A client has the right to make decisions about their healthcare without interference from healthcare team members. In this scenario, the nurse violated the client's right to make personal health decisions without interference by trying to influence the client's decision-making and healthcare choice in the direction of not having an abortion. It is essential for healthcare providers to respect patients' autonomy and decisions, regardless of personal beliefs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the primary violation in this situation is related to the client's right to make their own healthcare decisions without interference.
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