Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Lasix (furosemide)
• B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
• D. Dilantin (phenytoin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

2. A client with cirrhosis of the liver presents with ascites. The physician is to perform a paracentesis. For safety, the nurse should ask the client to:

• A. drink 1000 cc of fluid prior to the procedure to aid in fluid loss.
• B. eat foods low in fat.
• C. empty his bladder prior to the procedure.
• D. assume the prone position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When performing a paracentesis, the client must be sitting up to allow the fluid to settle in the lower abdomen. To prevent trauma to the bladder while inserting a needle to aspirate the fluid, the bladder must be empty. Choice A is incorrect as excessive fluid intake can make the procedure more difficult due to increased abdominal distension. Choice B is unrelated to the procedure of paracentesis. Choice D is incorrect as the client should be sitting up, not in the prone position, during the procedure.

3. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

• A. Bell's palsy
• B. Guillain-Barr� syndrome
• C. Trigeminal neuralgia
• D. Tetanus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barr� syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

4. What is the appropriate intervention for a client who is restrained?

• A. Remove the restraints and provide skin care every hour.
• B. Document the condition of the client's skin every 3 hours.
• C. Assess the restraint every 30 minutes
• D. Tie the restraint to the side rails.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention when a client is restrained is to assess the restraint every 30 minutes. This ensures the safety and well-being of the client by checking for proper fit, circulation, and signs of distress. Removing restraints and providing skin care every hour may not be necessary and could increase the risk of skin breakdown. Documenting the skin condition every 3 hours is important but not the immediate intervention needed when a client is restrained. Tying the restraint to the side rails is unsafe and can cause harm to the client, as restraints should be secured to the bed frame or an immovable part of the bed.

5. What should be the primary action for a client who has just vomited 300 cc of bright red blood?

• A. Document the vomiting.
• B. Increase IV fluids.
• C. Get a complete blood count.
• D. Check the blood pressure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for a client who has just vomited 300 cc of bright red blood is to check the blood pressure. This assessment is crucial to evaluate for hypotension, which could indicate significant blood loss and the need for immediate intervention. Documenting the vomiting is important for the client's medical record but not the initial priority. Increasing IV fluids and getting a complete blood count are necessary steps but should follow the assessment of the client's hemodynamic status.

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