Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Lasix (furosemide)
• B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
• D. Dilantin (phenytoin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

2. A case manager is reviewing notations made in clients' records. Which note indicates an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up?

• A. A client who exhibits signs of increased intracranial pressure after a craniotomy.
• B. A client who has sustained a stroke and dresses herself.
• C. A client with a spinal cord injury transfers himself from a bed to a wheelchair.
• D. Normal neurological findings are noted in a client with a cerebral aneurysm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A case manager is responsible for coordinating a client's care and monitoring for unexpected outcomes. The situation that indicates an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up is when a client exhibits signs of increased intracranial pressure after a craniotomy. This indicates a deteriorating condition that requires urgent intervention. Choices B, C, and D describe expected outcomes or normal findings related to specific conditions, which do not demand immediate follow-up.

3. In what order should the LPN see the following clients? Use appropriate letters to match the correct order

• A. A, D, B, C
• B. C, B, D, A
• C. D, C, B, A
• D. B, C, A, D

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct order for the LPN to see the clients is C, B, D, A. It is crucial to prioritize client care based on the urgency of their conditions. The 53-year-old client with lower leg swelling complaining of sudden onset headache and blurry vision (Client C) should be seen first as they are at the highest risk for serious healthcare complications. Next, the LPN should attend to the 23-year-old client with a left arm fracture after an MVA complaining of significant pain in his arm (Client B). Following that, the LPN can address the 47-year-old client requesting more information regarding her surgery scheduled in three hours (Client D). Lastly, the LPN should attend to the 72-year-old client with pneumonia asking to order her dinner (Client A). This order ensures that the most critical needs are met first, followed by the less urgent ones. Choice A is incorrect as it places the 72-year-old client before the 23-year-old client with a painful arm. Choice B is incorrect as it prioritizes the 53-year-old client last. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the urgency of the clients' conditions appropriately.

4. The LPN is auscultating for bowel sounds and hears between 3 and 4 bowel sounds per minute. This is a somewhat expected finding for which of these clients?

• A. a 63-year-old female undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer
• B. a 56-year-old female with dementia undergoing a swallow study
• C. a 34-year-old male with a PEG tube newly admitted for diabetic ketoacidosis
• D. a 45-year-old male recovering from a knee replacement under general anesthesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When recovering from general anesthesia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be expected due to the effects of the anesthesia on gut motility. For the other clients, hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would indicate an abnormal finding. In the context of the given situation, the client recovering from knee replacement surgery aligns with the expected range of bowel sounds post-general anesthesia. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C present scenarios where hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would be abnormal, indicating potential issues that need further evaluation.

5. Which isolation procedure will be followed for secretions and blood?

• A. Respiratory Isolation
• B. Standard Precautions
• C. Contact Isolation
• D. Droplet Isolation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Standard Precautions. Standard precautions are taken in all situations for all clients and involve all body secretions except sweat. They are designed to reduce the rate of transmission of microbes from one host to another or one source to another. Respiratory Isolation (Choice A) is used for diseases transmitted by airborne particles, not secretions and blood. Contact Isolation (Choice C) is for clients known or suspected to be infected with microorganisms that can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact. Droplet Isolation (Choice D) is used for diseases transmitted by large respiratory droplets expelled during coughing, sneezing, talking, or procedures.

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