NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?
- A. Shock
- B. Nephrotoxic drugs
- C. Enlarged prostate
- D. Diabetes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Shock.' Acute renal failure is commonly caused by inadequate blood flow to the kidneys, which can occur in cases of shock. This leads to decreased kidney function and potential kidney damage. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is the primary and most common cause. An enlarged prostate may lead to obstructive uropathy but is not the most prevalent cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes is typically associated with chronic kidney disease rather than acute renal failure.
2. The LPN is auscultating for bowel sounds and hears between 3 and 4 bowel sounds per minute. This is a somewhat expected finding for which of these clients?
- A. a 63-year-old female undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer
- B. a 56-year-old female with dementia undergoing a swallow study
- C. a 34-year-old male with a PEG tube newly admitted for diabetic ketoacidosis
- D. a 45-year-old male recovering from a knee replacement under general anesthesia
Correct answer: a 45-year-old male recovering from a knee replacement under general anesthesia
Rationale: When recovering from general anesthesia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be expected due to the effects of the anesthesia on gut motility. For the other clients, hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would indicate an abnormal finding. In the context of the given situation, the client recovering from knee replacement surgery aligns with the expected range of bowel sounds post-general anesthesia. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C present scenarios where hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would be abnormal, indicating potential issues that need further evaluation.
3. When assisting a client in gaining insight into anxiety, what should the nurse do?
- A. Help the client relate anxiety to specific triggers.
- B. Ask the client to describe events that precede increased anxiety.
- C. Instruct the client to practice relaxation techniques.
- D. Confront the client's resistive behavior.
Correct answer: Ask the client to describe events that precede increased anxiety.
Rationale: To assist a client in gaining insight into anxiety, it is crucial to identify triggers or events that lead to increased anxiety. This approach helps the client recognize causal factors contributing to their anxiety, promoting self-awareness and understanding. Choice A is incorrect because it should focus on triggers rather than specific behaviors. Choice C is incorrect as it emphasizes managing anxiety through relaxation techniques rather than understanding its roots. Choice D is incorrect as it addresses resistive behavior rather than exploring the causes of anxiety.
4. Which of the following solutions is routinely used to flush an IV device before and after the administration of blood to a client?
- A. 0.9% sodium chloride
- B. 5% dextrose in water solution
- C. Sterile water
- D. Heparin sodium
Correct answer: 0.9% sodium chloride
Rationale: The correct answer is 0.9% sodium chloride. Normal saline is 0.9% sodium chloride, which has the same osmolarity as blood and does not cause cell lysis. Choices 2 and 3, 5% dextrose in water solution and sterile water, are hypotonic solutions that can lead to cell lysis. Choice 4, heparin sodium, is an anticoagulant and is not used for flushing IV devices before and after blood administration.
5. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:
- A. Placenta previa.
- B. Eclampsia.
- C. Abruptio placentae.
- D. Uterine rupture.
Correct answer: B: Eclampsia.
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions and answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX Coverage
- 90 days access @ $69.99