Nursing Elites

1. What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?

• A. Shock
• B. Nephrotoxic drugs
• C. Enlarged prostate
• D. Diabetes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Shock.' Acute renal failure is commonly caused by inadequate blood flow to the kidneys, which can occur in cases of shock. This leads to decreased kidney function and potential kidney damage. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is the primary and most common cause. An enlarged prostate may lead to obstructive uropathy but is not the most prevalent cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes is typically associated with chronic kidney disease rather than acute renal failure.

2. After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client who is having chest pain, the nurse should implement which intervention?

• A. Have the client take slow deep breaths in through their mouth and out through their nose.
• B. Post signs indicating that oxygen is in use on the client's door and in their room
• C. Apply Vaseline petroleum to both nares and 2 by 2 gauze around the oxygen tubing at the client's ears
• D. Encourage the client to hyperextend the neck, take a few deep breaths and cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client with chest pain, it is essential for the nurse to post signs indicating that oxygen is in use on the client's door and in their room. This safety precaution alerts healthcare providers and visitors that the client is receiving oxygen therapy, reducing the risk of accidents or misunderstandings. Choice A is incorrect because instructing the client to take slow deep breaths is not the appropriate intervention after applying oxygen. Choice C suggests applying Vaseline and gauze, which is unnecessary and not a standard practice. Choice D advising the client to hyperextend the neck, take deep breaths, and cough is not indicated after applying oxygen therapy and could potentially be harmful.

3. A patient has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is not a clinical sign of diabetes mellitus?

• A. Polyphagia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Lower extremity edema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Polyphagia, polyuria, and metabolic acidosis are common clinical signs of diabetes mellitus. Polyphagia refers to excessive hunger, polyuria is excessive urination, and metabolic acidosis can occur due to poorly controlled diabetes. Lower extremity edema, on the other hand, is not a typical clinical sign of diabetes mellitus. Edema in the lower extremities is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease rather than diabetes mellitus.

4. Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?

• A. metoclopramide (Reglan)
• B. ondansetron (Zofran)
• C. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
• D. prochlorperazine (Compazine)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Zofran is a serotonin antagonist that can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron (Zofran) works by blocking serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) and the gastrointestinal tract. This action helps reduce nausea and vomiting. Metoclopramide (Reglan) works as a dopamine antagonist and also has prokinetic effects, making it effective for different conditions. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but it does not act as a serotonin antagonist. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist that is also used to treat nausea and vomiting, but not as a serotonin antagonist like ondansetron.

5. A client is admitted for observation following an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. A bystander stated that he lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. On admission, the client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 14. The GCS is now 12. The nurse should:

• A. Re-assess in 15 minutes
• B. Stimulate the client with a sternal rub
• C. Administer Tylenol with codeine for a headache
• D. Notify the physician

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score from 14 to 12 indicates a significant neurological change in the client's condition. This change can be indicative of a deterioration in the client's neurological status, possibly due to intracranial bleeding or swelling. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Re-assessing in 15 minutes or stimulating the client with a sternal rub are not appropriate actions in this situation as they do not address the underlying cause of the decrease in GCS. Administering Tylenol with codeine for a headache is also not recommended without further assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.

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