Nursing Elites

1. What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?

• A. Shock
• B. Nephrotoxic drugs
• C. Enlarged prostate
• D. Diabetes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Shock.' Acute renal failure is commonly caused by inadequate blood flow to the kidneys, which can occur in cases of shock. This leads to decreased kidney function and potential kidney damage. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is the primary and most common cause. An enlarged prostate may lead to obstructive uropathy but is not the most prevalent cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes is typically associated with chronic kidney disease rather than acute renal failure.

2. The nurse is caring for a preschool child who is being treated in the hospital for respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). In planning the client's care, the nurse should recognize that the child is likely to view this illness as?

• A. Punishment.
• B. Disturbance to body image.
• C. Rejection from parents.
• D. Change in routine with friends.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Punishment. Preschool children often see illness as a form of punishment, especially when they are unable to understand the cause of their sickness. This perception is rooted in their limited cognitive abilities and understanding of health concepts. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because preschool children are less likely to associate illness with disturbance to body image, rejection from parents, or changes in routine with friends. These options are not developmentally appropriate for how preschoolers typically interpret illness.

3. A client has chronic respiratory acidosis caused by end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Oxygen is delivered at 1 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse teaches the family that the reason for this is to avoid respiratory depression, based on which of the following explanations?

• A. COPD clients are stimulated to breathe by hypoxia.
• B. COPD clients depend on a low carbon dioxide level.
• C. COPD clients tend to retain hydrogen ions if they are given high doses of oxygen.
• D. COPD clients thrive on a high oxygen level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with COPD and chronic respiratory acidosis, they are compensating for low oxygen and high carbon dioxide levels. Hypoxia acts as the main stimulus to breathe in individuals with chronic hypercapnia. When oxygen is administered, it can decrease the respiratory drive by eliminating the hypoxic drive and reducing the stimulus to breathe. Therefore, delivering oxygen at 1 L/min via nasal cannula helps prevent respiratory depression by maintaining the hypoxic drive to breathe. The other options are incorrect: COPD clients do not depend on a low carbon dioxide level as they are chronically hypercapnic, they do not retain hydrogen ions with high oxygen doses, and they do not thrive on a high oxygen level.

4. After an escharotomy of the forearm, what is the priority nursing assessment for the client who has returned to your unit?

• A. Infection
• B. Incision
• C. Pain
• D. Tissue perfusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is "Tissue perfusion." After an escharotomy, the priority assessment is to ensure adequate tissue perfusion to the affected limb. Escharotomy is performed to relieve circulatory compromise by cutting through the eschar, so monitoring tissue perfusion is crucial to assess the effectiveness of the procedure and prevent complications. Assessing for infection is important but comes after ensuring adequate tissue perfusion. Checking the incision is necessary but assessing tissue perfusion takes precedence. Pain assessment is important but not the priority compared to assessing tissue perfusion to prevent ischemic complications.

5. The client is undergoing progressive ambulation on the third day after a myocardial infarction. Which clinical manifestation would indicate that the client should not be advanced to the next level?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. A complaint of chest heaviness
• C. Heart rate increase of 10 beats/min
• D. Systolic blood pressure increase of 10 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a complaint of chest heaviness. Onset of chest pain indicates myocardial ischemia, which can be life-threatening. Chest pain in a client post-myocardial infarction should be promptly evaluated, and the activity level should not be advanced. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options because facial flushing, a heart rate increase of 10 beats/min, and a systolic blood pressure increase of 10 mm Hg are not typical indicators of myocardial ischemia or necessarily contraindications for advancing activity levels in this context.

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