Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, which of the following factors is least relevant?

• A. current medications
• B. ambulation abilities
• C. family history
• D. hydration status

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, family history is the least relevant factor to consider. Current medications can affect elimination functions through side effects, ambulation abilities can impact mobility to access toileting facilities, and hydration status directly influences urinary output and bowel function. Family history, although providing some context, does not have a direct impact on the client's current risk of elimination impairment.

2. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

• A. LDH
• B. troponin
• C. CPK
• D. SGOT

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

3. A client has signed the informed consent for mastectomy of the left breast. On the morning of the surgical procedure, the client asks the nurse several questions about the procedure that make it obvious that she does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Telling the client that she needed to ask these questions before signing the informed consent for surgery
• B. Contacting the surgeon and requesting that she visit the client to answer her questions
• C. Informing the client that she has the right to cancel the surgical procedure if she wishes
• D. Telling the client that it is her surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Informed consent is the authorization by a client or a client's legal representative to do something to the client. The surgeon is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and obtaining informed consent. If the client asks questions that alert the nurse to an inadequacy of comprehension on the client's part, the nurse has the obligation to contact the surgeon. Choice A is incorrect as the client should be allowed to ask questions even after signing the consent for surgery. Choice C is not the most appropriate response, as the primary concern is to address the client's lack of comprehension. Choice D is inaccurate, as while it is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure, in this scenario, the nurse should take immediate action to ensure the client's understanding. Requesting the surgeon to visit and answer the client's questions is the most appropriate response in this situation, as it directly addresses the client's concerns and ensures proper informed consent is obtained.

4. The LPN notices a client with poor gait and balance. She is currently being treated for hypertension, but the nurse is concerned. What should the nurse do?

• A. Add this issue to the nursing care plan and include daily gait/balance training as an intervention.
• B. Do nothing as this is unrelated to the client's hospitalization.
• C. Speak with the attending physician about the concerns and request a referral for the client to go to physical therapy.
• D. Speak with the attending physician about the concerns and request a referral to physical therapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nurses should address any concerns regarding a client's health, even if they are not directly related to the reason for hospitalization. In this case, the nurse noticing the client's poor gait and balance should communicate these concerns to the attending physician. The correct course of action is to request a referral to physical therapy, as this specialized intervention can help address the client's issues effectively. Adding gait/balance training to the care plan without professional assessment and intervention may not be appropriate. Doing nothing is not in line with providing comprehensive care, and referring the client to the hospital gym is not as effective as a referral to physical therapy for addressing gait and balance issues.

5. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with cirrhosis is at risk for developing a high ammonia level due to impaired liver function. The liver normally converts ammonia into urea for excretion. In cirrhosis, this process is compromised, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. Renal failure, psoriasis, and lupus do not typically cause high ammonia levels. Renal failure affects kidney function, while psoriasis and lupus are autoimmune conditions that do not directly impact ammonia metabolism.

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