which of the following is least relevant when reviewing the clients risk for elimination impairment
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, which of the following factors is least relevant?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, family history is the least relevant factor to consider. Current medications can affect elimination functions through side effects, ambulation abilities can impact mobility to access toileting facilities, and hydration status directly influences urinary output and bowel function. Family history, although providing some context, does not have a direct impact on the client's current risk of elimination impairment.

2. In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an emergency situation to assess for airway obstruction, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's ability to speak. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed, allowing air to pass through the vocal cords for speech production. Choices B, C, and D are not the primary assessments for determining airway obstruction. Assessing the ability to hear is not directly related to an airway obstruction. While oxygen saturation and adventitious breath sounds are important in respiratory assessments, they are not the initial indicators of an airway obstruction. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, and adventitious breath sounds refer to abnormal lung sounds that may indicate conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, but they do not specifically confirm airway patency.

3. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.

4. A client turns her ankle. She is diagnosed as having a Pulled Ligament. This should be documented as a:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sprain is the correct term for the excessive stretching of a ligament, which is what happens when a ligament is pulled. A strain involves muscle tissue. Subluxation refers to a partial dislocation, and dislocation is a complete displacement of bones in a joint. In this case, since it's a pulled ligament, the most appropriate term is a sprain.

5. Which of the following neurological disorders is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Huntington's chorea is a neurological disorder characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs, known as chorea. Epilepsy is characterized by seizures, not writhing, twisting movements. Parkinson's disease presents with tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia, not writhing, twisting movements. Multiple sclerosis affects the central nervous system but does not typically involve writhing, twisting movements. Therefore, the correct answer is Huntington's chorea as it specifically manifests with these characteristic movements.

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