NCLEX-PN
Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet
1. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?
- A. renal failure
- B. psoriasis
- C. lupus
- D. cirrhosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client with cirrhosis is at risk for developing a high ammonia level due to impaired liver function. The liver normally converts ammonia into urea for excretion. In cirrhosis, this process is compromised, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. Renal failure, psoriasis, and lupus do not typically cause high ammonia levels. Renal failure affects kidney function, while psoriasis and lupus are autoimmune conditions that do not directly impact ammonia metabolism.
2. An LPN is talking with a client scheduled to undergo a vasectomy in the next few minutes. He states, "I know I signed the form and all, but I'm not feeling so sure of this. It can be reversed pretty easily, right?"? What is the LPN's best response?
- A. "Yes, vasectomies can be reversed, but once you have it, you may regret it later."?
- B. "It's normal to feel a little nervous before a procedure like this."?
- C. "It sounds like you have a few more questions you'd like answered. Let me grab the doctor quickly so he can answer them for you."?
- D. "It sounds like you might be a little nervous. Don't worry, this is a pretty minor procedure, and the doctor doing it is the best we have. You're in great hands."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best response for the LPN is to acknowledge the client's concerns and offer to provide more information. By offering to get the doctor to answer any additional questions, the LPN shows respect for the client's right to informed consent. Option A provides some information but dismisses the client's uncertainty and implies they won't regret the decision, which may not be the case. Option B acknowledges nervousness but doesn't directly address the client's request for more information. Option D attempts to reassure the client but fails to address the need for additional questions to be answered by the doctor.
3. What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m.?
- A. delta sleep
- B. slow brain waves
- C. pneumonia
- D. circadian rhythm
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.
4. Which of the following is not an advanced directive?
- A. informed consent
- B. living will
- C. durable power of attorney for health care
- D. health care proxy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Informed consent is the process of obtaining permission from a patient before conducting a healthcare intervention. It is not considered an advanced directive. A living will is a legal document that outlines a person's preferences for medical treatment if they are unable to communicate. A durable power of attorney for health care designates a person to make medical decisions on behalf of the patient. A health care proxy, which is another term for a durable power of attorney for health care, also involves appointing someone to make healthcare decisions for an individual if they become unable to do so. Therefore, the correct answer is 'informed consent,' as it is not an advanced directive but rather a different aspect of patient care.
5. Which situation is an example of the use of evidence-based practice in the delivery of client care?
- A. Encouraging a client who has had a stroke to consume thickened liquids and soft foods
- B. Picking up a dislodged radiation implant with long-handled forceps and placing it in a lead container to minimize radiation exposure
- C. Pouring 1 to 2 mL of sterile solution that will be used for wound cleansing into a plastic-lined waste receptacle before pouring the solution into a sterile basin
- D. Blowing on a fingerstick site to dry it after cleaning the site with an alcohol swab
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Evidence-based practice is an approach that integrates client preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care. Pouring sterile solution into a plastic-lined waste receptacle before using it for wound cleansing reflects evidence-based practice by preventing the entrance of harmful bacteria into the wound. Option A is incorrect because encouraging a stroke client to consume thickened liquids and soft foods is appropriate, not thin liquids and foods that pose a choking risk. Option B is incorrect as picking up a radiation implant with long-handled forceps to minimize radiation exposure is a safety measure, not evidence-based practice. Option D is incorrect because blowing on a fingerstick site after cleaning can recontaminate the site, which goes against best practices in infection control.
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