Nursing Elites

1. A nursing care plan for a client with sleep problems has been implemented. All of the following should be expected outcomes except:

• A. the client reports no episodes of awakening during the night.
• B. the client falls asleep within 1 hour of going to bed.
• C. the client reports satisfaction with their amount of sleep.
• D. the client rates sleep as an 8 or more on the visual analog scale.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An expected outcome for a nursing care plan targeting sleep problems is that the client reports no episodes of awakening during the night, the client reports satisfaction with their amount of sleep, and the client rates sleep as an 8 or more on the visual analog scale. Falling asleep within 1 hour of going to bed is not necessarily an expected outcome. While it is generally desirable for individuals to fall asleep within a reasonable time frame, this specific timeframe may vary among individuals, and it is not a strict criterion for successful sleep outcomes. Therefore, the correct answer is that the client falls asleep within 1 hour of going to bed, as this is not a definitive measure of the effectiveness of the nursing care plan for sleep problems.

2. Which of the following symptoms is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia in the client with a spinal cord injury?

• A. sudden onset of headache
• B. flushed face
• C. hypotension
• D. nasal congestion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms due to an overactive autonomic nervous system. Hypotension is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia; instead, hypertension is a hallmark sign. Therefore, hypotension is the correct answer. Flushed face, sudden onset of headache, and nasal congestion are classic symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia caused by a noxious stimulus below the level of the spinal cord injury. These symptoms result from the body's attempt to regulate blood pressure when the normal feedback loop is interrupted.

3. When a client needs oxygen therapy, what is the highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula?

• A. 2 liters/minute
• B. 4 liters/minute
• C. 6 liters/minute
• D. 8 liters/minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 6 liters/minute. When a client requires oxygen therapy, the maximum flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula is 6 liters/minute. Nasal cannula can effectively deliver oxygen up to 6 liters/minute. Flow rates exceeding 6 liters/minute may lead to drying of the nasal passages and discomfort for the client. Higher flow rates, like 8 liters/minute, should be administered using a mask to ensure sufficient oxygenation. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they indicate flow rates that surpass the recommended maximum for nasal cannula delivery.

4. Which of the following client statements indicates adequate understanding of preparation for electroencephalography?

• A. "I don't need to eat or drink after midnight."?
• B. "I need to wash my hair before the test."?
• C. "I need to remove metal jewelry."?
• D. "I can't take aspirin before the test."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement is, 'I need to wash my hair before the test.' Washing the hair is necessary to remove hair products that could interfere with electrode attachment to the scalp. Restricting food or drink is not required, except for avoiding caffeinated beverages. Removing metal jewelry is unnecessary for an electroencephalography procedure. Aspirin does not need to be avoided before the test; medications like anticonvulsants, tranquilizers, barbiturates, and sedatives are the ones that might need to be held.

5. A nurse calls a health care provider to report that a client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is exhibiting dyspnea and worsening of wheezing. The health care provider, who is in a hurry because of a situation in the emergency department, gives the nurse a telephone prescription for furosemide (Lasix) but does not specify the route of administration. What is the appropriate action on the part of the nurse?

• A. Calling the health care provider who gave the telephone prescription to clarify the prescription
• B. Administering the medication orally and clarifying the prescription once the health care provider has finished caring for the client in the emergency department
• C. Calling the nursing supervisor for assistance in determining the route of administration
• D. Administering the medication intravenously because this route is generally used for clients with CHF

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Telephone prescriptions involve a health care provider dictating a prescribed therapy over the telephone to the nurse. The nurse must clarify the prescription by repeating it clearly and precisely to the health care provider. The nurse then writes the prescription on the health care provider's prescription sheet or enters it into the electronic medical record. It is crucial not to interpret an unclear prescription or administer a medication by a route that has not been expressly prescribed. In this case, the nurse should call the health care provider who gave the telephone prescription to clarify the prescription, ensuring the correct route of administration is specified. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because administering the medication without clarification, seeking assistance from the nursing supervisor, or choosing an arbitrary route of administration can compromise patient safety and violate medication administration protocols.

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