NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Test Bank
1. A nursing care plan for a client with sleep problems has been implemented. All of the following should be expected outcomes except:
- A. the client reports no episodes of awakening during the night.
- B. the client falls asleep within 1 hour of going to bed.
- C. the client reports satisfaction with their amount of sleep.
- D. the client rates sleep as an 8 or more on the visual analog scale.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An expected outcome for a nursing care plan targeting sleep problems is that the client reports no episodes of awakening during the night, the client reports satisfaction with their amount of sleep, and the client rates sleep as an 8 or more on the visual analog scale. Falling asleep within 1 hour of going to bed is not necessarily an expected outcome. While it is generally desirable for individuals to fall asleep within a reasonable time frame, this specific timeframe may vary among individuals, and it is not a strict criterion for successful sleep outcomes. Therefore, the correct answer is that the client falls asleep within 1 hour of going to bed, as this is not a definitive measure of the effectiveness of the nursing care plan for sleep problems.
2. The nurse is transferring a client from a wheelchair to the bed. Which is the correct procedure?
- A. Pull the client toward you, and pivot him on the unaffected limb.
- B. Pull the client toward you, and pivot him on the affected limb.
- C. Push the client toward the bed, and pivot him on the affected limb.
- D. Stand the client on both legs, and push him toward the bed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When transferring a client from a wheelchair to the bed, the correct procedure is to pull the client toward you, which reduces workload force. By pivoting the client on the unaffected limb, strength is maintained to support the affected limb while moving towards the bed. Choice A is correct because it ensures a safe and effective transfer technique. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they involve incorrect positioning and movements that could potentially harm the client or increase the risk of injury. Pulling the client towards you puts less strain on your back and reduces the risk of injury. Pivoting on the unaffected limb ensures better support for the client's affected limb during the transfer process.
3. What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m.?
- A. delta sleep
- B. slow brain waves
- C. pneumonia
- D. circadian rhythm
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.
4. What intervention should the nurse take for a client who has sustained a hyphema?
- A. Instruct the client to wear eye protectors in the future
- B. Keep the client at bed rest, typically with the head of the bed propped up
- C. Apply atropine eyedrops
- D. Apply an ice pack to the site of injury
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who has sustained a hyphema is to keep them at bed rest, usually with the head of the bed raised. This positioning helps to reduce intraocular pressure and prevent further damage or rebleeding. Instructing the client to wear eye protectors in the future (Choice A) is not the immediate intervention required for a hyphema. Applying atropine eyedrops (Choice C) is not typically indicated for a hyphema. Applying an ice pack to the site of injury (Choice D) is not recommended for a hyphema as it can increase the risk of rebleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is to keep the client at bed rest.
5. What should be the primary action for a client who has just vomited 300 cc of bright red blood?
- A. Document the vomiting.
- B. Increase IV fluids.
- C. Get a complete blood count.
- D. Check the blood pressure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct first action for a client who has just vomited 300 cc of bright red blood is to check the blood pressure. This assessment is crucial to evaluate for hypotension, which could indicate significant blood loss and the need for immediate intervention. Documenting the vomiting is important for the client's medical record but not the initial priority. Increasing IV fluids and getting a complete blood count are necessary steps but should follow the assessment of the client's hemodynamic status.
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