Nursing Elites

1. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:

• A. a maintenance dose.
• B. a loading dose.
• C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
• D. the medication to be given intravenously.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.

2. What should the nurse do while caring for a client with an eating disorder?

• A. Encourage the client to cook for others
• B. Weigh the client daily and keep a journal
• C. Restrict access to mirrors
• D. Monitor food intake and behavior for one hour after meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor food intake and behavior for one hour after meals. This is crucial in caring for a client with an eating disorder as it helps in assessing any immediate risks related to the disorder. Option A is incorrect as it may trigger additional stress for the client and distract from the main focus of managing the disorder. Option B, weighing the client daily, could lead to an unhealthy focus on weight and potentially worsen the client's mental health. Option C, restricting access to mirrors, although it may be beneficial for body image concerns, does not directly address the core issue of monitoring food intake and behavior, which is essential in managing eating disorders.

3. The anemias most often associated with pregnancy are:

• A. folic acid and iron deficiency.
• B. folic acid deficiency and thalassemia.
• C. iron deficiency and thalassemia.
• D. thalassemia and B12 deficiency.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Folic acid and iron deficiency anemia are the most common types of anemia associated with pregnancy. Approximately 50% of pregnant women experience this type of anemia. Iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy typically results from the increased plasma volume, rather than a decrease in iron levels. Moreover, if a woman has iron deficiency anemia before pregnancy, it often worsens during pregnancy. Folic acid deficiency is also prevalent during pregnancy due to the increased demand for this nutrient to support fetal development. Thalassemia and B12 deficiency, while types of anemia, are not as commonly associated with pregnancy compared to folic acid and iron deficiency anemia, making them incorrect choices in this context.

4. Which reported symptom would indicate a client with Addison's disease has received too much fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement?

• A. Oily skin and hair
• B. Weight gain of 6 pounds in one week
• C. Loss of muscle mass in arms and legs
• D. Increased blood glucose level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement in Addison's disease involves mimicking aldosterone to retain sodium and water. This retention can lead to weight gain due to increased fluid retention. Rapid weight gain, such as 6 pounds in one week, is a concerning sign of excessive fluid retention, indicating a potential overdose of fludrocortisone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because oily skin and hair, loss of muscle mass, and increased blood glucose levels are not specific symptoms of excessive fludrocortisone replacement in Addison's disease.

5. A 21-year-old college student has just learned that she contracted genital herpes from her sexual partner. After completing the initial history and assessment, the nurse has data concerning areas pertinent to the disease. The data is likely to include all but which of the following?

• A. voiding patterns
• B. characteristics of lesions
• C. vaginal discharge
• D. prior history of varicella

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'prior history of varicella.' When assessing a client with genital herpes, it is important to gather data on voiding patterns, characteristics of lesions, and vaginal discharge as these are pertinent to the disease. However, the prior history of varicella is not directly related to the current diagnosis of genital herpes. Varicella, which refers to chickenpox, is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, a different virus from the herpes simplex virus causing genital herpes.

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