a client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication rather than wait for steady state to be achieved the physici
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023

1. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.

2. The charge nurse is observing a student nurse caring for a 4-month-old infant in isolation diagnosed with RSV. Which of the following would indicate to the charge nurse that the student nurse needs further instruction on isolation standards?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Donning clean gloves each time she goes in the room.' Sterile gloves are not necessary for standard isolation precautions; clean gloves are sufficient. The student nurse should be instructed to use clean gloves to reduce the risk of spreading infections. Wearing a clean mask each time she goes in the room is a good practice to prevent the spread of respiratory infections like RSV. Labeling the door for Airborne Precautions is appropriate for RSV. Wearing a gown when entering the room to administer medication helps prevent the transmission of infectious agents.

3. A patient has experienced a severe third-degree burn to the trunk in the last 36 hours. Which phase of burn management is the patient in?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shock phase. The shock phase occurs within the first 24-48 hours of burn management. During this phase, the focus is on stabilization, fluid resuscitation, and monitoring for potential complications. Choice B, the Emergent phase, is incorrect as it refers to the initial phase of burn care immediately after the injury. Choice C, the Healing phase, occurs later in the treatment process when the wound starts to repair itself. Choice D, the Wound proliferation phase, is not a recognized phase in burn management.

4. The healthcare provider should utilize data about which of the following to provide information about the nutritional status of a client being evaluated for malnutrition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Objective anthropometric measurements such as triceps skinfold and mid-arm circumference (MAC), along with weight, are usually used to diagnose malnutrition. Triceps skinfold measurement specifically helps assess body fat and muscle mass, providing valuable information about the client's nutritional status. Fasting blood glucose level, hemoglobin A1c level, and serum lipid profile results are important tests in assessing different aspects of health such as diabetes management and cardiovascular risk, but they are not specific indicators of malnutrition.

5. What do the following ABG values indicate: pH 7.38, PO2 78 mmHg, PCO2 36mmHg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'homeostasis.' These ABG values fall within normal ranges, indicating a state of balance in the body's acid-base levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the ABG values provided do not point towards metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, or respiratory alkalosis. Instead, the values reflect a state of equilibrium where pH, PO2, PCO2, and HCO3 levels are within the normal range.

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