Nursing Elites

1. What task should the RN perform first?

• A. Changing a burn dressing that is scheduled every four hours.
• B. Doing pinsite care on a client in skeletal traction ordered TID.
• C. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic about diet and exercise.
• D. Assessing a newly admitted client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess a newly admitted client first. When a client is newly admitted, it is crucial to perform an assessment promptly. The initial assessment and establishment of a care plan should be completed within a specific timeframe to ensure the client's needs are met effectively. Choices A, B, and C involve important tasks but should be prioritized after the initial assessment of the newly admitted client to ensure timely and appropriate care delivery. Changing a burn dressing (Choice A) and doing pinsite care on a client in skeletal traction (Choice B) are time-sensitive tasks but can be safely delayed briefly to conduct the initial assessment. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic about diet and exercise (Choice C) is important for the client's long-term care but can be scheduled after the immediate needs assessment of the newly admitted client.

2. One of the major functions of the kidneys in maintaining normal fluid balance is:

• A. the manufacture of antidiuretic hormone.
• B. the regulation of calcium and phosphate balance.
• C. the regulation of the pH of the extracellular fluid.
• D. the control of aldosterone levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the regulation of the pH of the extracellular fluid.' The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining normal fluid balance by regulating extracellular fluid and osmolarity through selective retention and excretion of fluids. Additionally, they regulate the pH of the extracellular fluid by retaining hydrogen ions and excreting metabolic wastes and toxic substances. Choice A is incorrect because antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is manufactured by the pituitary gland, not the kidneys. Choice B is incorrect as the regulation of calcium and phosphate balance is primarily controlled by the parathyroid gland. Choice D is incorrect as aldosterone levels are controlled by the adrenal glands, not the kidneys.

3. What is the most effective strategy to assist a client in recognizing and using personal strength?

• A. Encouraging the client's self-identification of strengths.
• B. Promoting the client's active external thinking.
• C. Listening to the client and providing advice as needed.
• D. Assisting the client in maintaining an external locus of control.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to identify their own strengths is empowering and helps build self-awareness and self-confidence. This strategy promotes autonomy and self-efficacy, enabling the client to recognize and utilize their personal strengths effectively. Option B, promoting the client's active external thinking, is vague and not directly related to recognizing personal strengths. Option C, listening to the client and providing advice as needed, focuses more on the nurse's role rather than empowering the client to recognize their strengths independently. Option D, assisting the client in maintaining an external locus of control, goes against the goal of helping the client recognize and utilize their internal strengths.

4. The client has just returned from electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) and is very drowsy. What is the position of choice until the client regains full consciousness?

• A. Supine
• B. Fowlers
• C. Lateral
• D. High Fowlers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lateral.' When a client is very drowsy or sedated, placing them in the lateral position is important to maintain an open airway and allow for drainage of secretions. This position helps prevent airway obstruction and aspiration. Choice A, 'Supine,' is lying flat on the back and may not be ideal for a drowsy client due to the risk of airway compromise. Choice B, 'Fowlers,' is a semi-sitting position that is beneficial for clients with respiratory distress, but it may not be the best choice for a very drowsy individual. Choice D, 'High Fowlers,' is a more upright sitting position, which again may not be suitable for a drowsy client as it does not facilitate airway patency as effectively as the lateral position.

5. The client is scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina. What is the most likely preoperative nursing diagnosis for this client?

• A. Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.
• B. Deficient knowledge (preoperative and postoperative activities) related to lack of information.
• C. Acute pain related to tissue injury and decreased circulation to the eye.
• D. Risk for infection related to the eye injury.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct preoperative nursing diagnosis for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina is 'Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.' A client facing the threat of permanent blindness due to a detached retina is likely to experience anxiety. Addressing this anxiety is crucial before providing education, as severe anxiety can hinder the client's ability to absorb new information. The nurse should offer emotional support, encourage the client to express concerns, and clarify any misconceptions. Acute pain is not a typical symptom of a detached retina, and the risk of infection preoperatively is minimal, making choices C and D less relevant in this scenario.

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