Nursing Elites

1. What task should the RN perform first?

• A. Changing a burn dressing that is scheduled every four hours.
• B. Doing pinsite care on a client in skeletal traction ordered TID.
• C. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic about diet and exercise.
• D. Assessing a newly admitted client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess a newly admitted client first. When a client is newly admitted, it is crucial to perform an assessment promptly. The initial assessment and establishment of a care plan should be completed within a specific timeframe to ensure the client's needs are met effectively. Choices A, B, and C involve important tasks but should be prioritized after the initial assessment of the newly admitted client to ensure timely and appropriate care delivery. Changing a burn dressing (Choice A) and doing pinsite care on a client in skeletal traction (Choice B) are time-sensitive tasks but can be safely delayed briefly to conduct the initial assessment. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic about diet and exercise (Choice C) is important for the client's long-term care but can be scheduled after the immediate needs assessment of the newly admitted client.

2. The client is taking Antabuse and should avoid eating foods that may trigger a disulfiram reaction. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid:

• A. Peanuts, dates, raisins
• B. Figs, chocolate, eggplant
• C. Pickles, salad with vinaigrette dressing, beef
• D. Milk, cottage cheese, ice cream

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client taking Antabuse should avoid foods that contain alcohol or vinegar as they can trigger a disulfiram reaction. Pickles and vinaigrette dressing often contain vinegar, which the client should avoid. Beef is safe to consume. Choices A, B, and D do not contain alcohol or vinegar, so they are allowed for the client taking Antabuse.

3. Which of the following lab values would indicate symptomatic AIDS in the medical chart? (T4 cell count per deciliter)

• A. Greater than 1000 cells per deciliter
• B. Less than 500 cells per deciliter
• C. Greater than 2000 cells per deciliter
• D. Less than 200 cells per deciliter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A T4 cell count of less than 200 cells per deciliter indicates symptomatic AIDS. This severe depletion of T4 cells signifies advanced HIV infection and a significantly compromised immune system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because T4 cell counts above 2000, above 1000, or below 500 cells per deciliter, respectively, are not indicative of symptomatic AIDS.

4. Ten-year-old Jackie is admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever. She relates a history of 'a sore throat about a month ago.' Bed rest with bathroom privileges is prescribed. Which of the following nursing assessments should be given the highest priority when assessing Jackie's condition?

• A. her response to hospitalization
• B. the presence of a macular rash on her trunk
• C. her cardiac status
• D. the presence of polyarthritis and joint pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring Jackie's cardiac status is of the highest priority in a patient with rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever can lead to permanent cardiac damage, making it crucial to closely monitor the heart. Assessing for signs of carditis, such as murmurs or other cardiac symptoms, is essential. The second priority is evaluating joint symptoms for the presence of polyarthritis and pain, which are common manifestations of rheumatic fever. While assessing Jackie's response to hospitalization is important for her emotional well-being, it is not the highest priority. The presence of a macular rash, although relevant, is not as high a priority as monitoring cardiac status or assessing joint symptoms.

5. When administering intravenous electrolyte solution, what precaution should the nurse take?

• A. Infuse hypertonic solutions cautiously.
• B. Mix no more than 60 mEq of potassium per liter of fluid.
• C. Prevent infiltration of calcium, which causes tissue necrosis and sloughing.
• D. Monitor the client's digitalis dosage for adjustments due to IV calcium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering intravenous electrolyte solutions, preventing the infiltration of calcium is crucial to avoid tissue necrosis and sloughing, making choice C the correct answer. Choice A is revised to 'Infuse hypertonic solutions cautiously' because hypertonic solutions should be infused cautiously to prevent adverse effects. Choice B is corrected to 'Mix no more than 60 mEq of potassium per liter of fluid' as exceeding this limit can lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is modified to 'Monitor the client's digitalis dosage for adjustments due to IV calcium' as it is essential to monitor the digitalis dosage for potential adjustments when IV calcium is administered; however, this choice is incorrect here as it inaccurately suggests adjusting the digitalis dosage due to IV calcium, which could lead to harmful effects.

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