Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary theory that explains a family's concept of health and illness?

• A. Health Belief Model
• B. Education-School-Completing Factor
• C. Family Health Expert Factor
• D. Disconnected Family Factor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Health Belief Model. This model explains a family's concept of health and illness by focusing on readiness factors, perceived susceptibility, and seriousness of health problems, and positive motivation for wellness. The Health Belief Model is widely used in healthcare to understand and predict health behaviors. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address how a family perceives health and illness. The Health Belief Model is the most appropriate choice as it is specifically designed to explain individual and family beliefs and behaviors related to health and illness.

2. The parents of an adolescent tell the school nurse that they are frustrated because their daughter has become self-centered, lazy, and irresponsible. The nurse should provide which response to the parents?

• A. That this is normal behavior for an adolescent
• B. That their daughter's behavior may be a part of adolescent development
• C. That this behavior could be a phase as the adolescent explores identity
• D. To restrict any social privileges until the behavior stops

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During adolescence, identity formation is a significant developmental task. Adolescents may appear self-centered, lazy, or irresponsible as they focus on themselves and explore their identity. Erikson describes this phase as identity formation versus role confusion. It is common for frustrated parents to perceive teenagers this way. The adolescent needs time to introspect and develop a sense of self. Suggesting that the behavior requires a child psychologist is premature and not supported by normal adolescent development. Blaming the behavior on parental spoiling is also inaccurate and unhelpful. Restricting social privileges can lead to resentment and rebellion, rather than addressing the root of the behavior.

3. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?

• A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
• B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
• C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
• D. The test results are normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.

4. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to perform a Rinne test on a client who complains of hearing loss. In which area does the healthcare provider first place an activated tuning fork?

• A. On the client's teeth
• B. On the client's forehead
• C. On the client's mastoid bone
• D. On the midline of the client's skull

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Rinne test, the base of an activated tuning fork is held first against the mastoid bone, behind the ear, and then in front of the ear canal (0.5 to 2 inches). When the client no longer perceives the sound behind the ear, the fork is moved in front of the ear canal until the client indicates that the sound can no longer be heard. The client reports whether the sound from the tuning fork is louder behind the ear (on the mastoid bone) or in front of the ear canal. Placing the tuning fork on the teeth (Choice A), forehead (Choice B), or the midline of the skull (Choice D) is not part of the Rinne test procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is to first place the activated tuning fork on the client's mastoid bone.

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