Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary theory that explains a family's concept of health and illness?

• A. Health Belief Model
• B. Education-School-Completing Factor
• C. Family Health Expert Factor
• D. Disconnected Family Factor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Health Belief Model. This model explains a family's concept of health and illness by focusing on readiness factors, perceived susceptibility, and seriousness of health problems, and positive motivation for wellness. The Health Belief Model is widely used in healthcare to understand and predict health behaviors. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address how a family perceives health and illness. The Health Belief Model is the most appropriate choice as it is specifically designed to explain individual and family beliefs and behaviors related to health and illness.

2. When examining the abdomen, a nurse auscultates before palpating and percussing the abdomen. The nurse performs the assessment in this manner for which reason?

• A. It is less painful for the client.
• B. Palpation and percussion can increase peristalsis.
• C. It identifies any potential areas of abdominal tenderness.
• D. It gives the client more time to become comfortable with the examiner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When performing an abdominal assessment, the nurse auscultates the abdomen after inspection. Auscultation is done before palpation and percussion because these assessment techniques can increase peristalsis, which would yield a false interpretation of bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent false interpretations of bowel sounds due to increased peristalsis caused by palpation and percussion. Options A, C, and D provide incorrect reasons for auscultating the abdomen before palpating and percussing it.

3. In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?

• A. measles, polio, pertussis, hepatitis B
• B. diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus
• C. rubella, polio, pertussis, hepatitis A
• D. measles, mumps, rubella, polio

Correct answer: B

Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received the DTaP (diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus) vaccine along with the polio vaccine. The MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine is not typically given until the child is 12-15 months old. Therefore, option B is correct as it includes vaccines that are usually administered by 12 months of age. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they include vaccines that are typically given after 12 months of age.

4. A nurse provides instructions to an older adult about measures to prevent heatstroke. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?

• A. ''I should wear cool, light clothing in warm weather.''
• B. ''I need to wear a hat with a wide brim when I go outdoors.''
• C. ''I need to wear additional antiperspirant and deodorant in warm weather.''
• D. ''I should drink extra fluids during the summer.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: As an individual ages, the number of sweat glands decreases, resulting in reduced body odor and decreased evaporative heat loss due to less sweating. The need for antiperspirants and deodorants is reduced in older adults. Therefore, the statement 'I need to wear additional antiperspirant and deodorant in warm weather' indicates a need for further instruction. Older adults should focus on wearing cool, light clothing in warm weather to prevent overheating, wearing a hat with a wide brim when outdoors to protect from the sun's rays, and staying hydrated by drinking extra fluids during the summer. These measures are more effective in preventing heatstroke in older adults compared to using additional antiperspirants and deodorants, which are not necessary.

5. A nurse is explaining a nonstress test to a pregnant client. The nurse explains that the results are nonreactive if which finding is noted on the electronic monitoring recording strip?

• A. Two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at 15 beats/min above baseline and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline
• B. Accelerations without fetal movement with fetal heart rate (FHR) increases of 15 beats/min for 15 seconds
• C. Acceleration of the FHR by 25 to 30 beats/min for at least 15 seconds in response to fetal movement
• D. Absence of accelerations after fetal movement

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Absence of accelerations after fetal movement.' In a nonreactive (nonreassuring) stress test, the monitor recording would not show accelerations after fetal movement within a 40-minute period. This absence of accelerations indicates a nonreactive result. Choices A, B, and C describe different patterns of fetal heart rate accelerations that are not indicative of a nonreactive result in a nonstress test, making them incorrect. Choice A describes the characteristics of a reactive (reassuring) result, where there should be at least two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at least 15 beats/min above the baseline, and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline. Choice B incorrectly states 'Accelerations without fetal movement,' which is contradictory. Choice C describes an acceleration response to fetal movement, which does not signify a nonreactive result.

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