Nursing Elites

1. When removing hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, what should the nurse do?

• A. Gently irrigate the eye with an irrigating solution from the inner canthus outward.
• B. Grasp the lens with a gentle pinching motion.
• C. Don sterile gloves before attempting the procedure.
• D. Ensure that the lens is centered on the cornea before gently manipulating the lids to release the lens.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When removing hard contact lenses, it is crucial to ensure that the lens is correctly positioned on the cornea before removal. Directly grasping the lens can potentially scratch the cornea, so it is essential to gently manipulate the lids to release the lens safely. Gently irrigating the eye is unnecessary and could be harmful, especially without the client's cooperation. Wearing sterile gloves is also unnecessary for this specific procedure. Therefore, the correct approach is to ensure the proper positioning of the lens and then gently manipulate the lids to release it. Options A and C are incorrect because irrigating the eye and wearing sterile gloves are not necessary for contact lens removal. Option B is incorrect as directly grasping the lens can be harmful to the cornea.

2. How often should a 5-year-old child undergo a dental examination?

• A. Every 6 months
• B. Whenever a new primary tooth erupts
• C. Once a year
• D. Every 3 months

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a 5-year-old child, dental examinations should be conducted every 6 months. This frequency allows for early detection of dental issues and promotes good oral health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting for a new primary tooth to erupt, having an examination once a year, or every 3 months are not the recommended intervals for dental check-ups in this age group. It is essential to adhere to the standard guideline of every 6 months to ensure regular monitoring and preventive care for the child's dental health.

3. While assisting with data collection of an adult client, a nurse asks the client to identify various odors. In this technique, which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?

• A. Optic
• B. Abducens
• C. Olfactory
• D. Hypoglossal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Olfactory.' The olfactory nerve is responsible for the sense of smell. Assessing this nerve involves testing the client's ability to identify various odors. Loss of smell, head trauma, abnormal mental status, and suspected intracranial lesions are conditions where testing the olfactory nerve is essential. The optic nerve is evaluated for visual acuity and visual fields. The abducens nerve is usually assessed alongside the oculomotor and trochlear nerves, focusing on pupil size, regularity, light reactions, accommodation, and extraocular movements. The hypoglossal nerve is examined by inspecting the tongue, not by assessing the sense of smell.

4. A nurse sees documentation in the client's record indicating that the health care provider has noted the presence of adventitious breath sounds. The nurse knows that these types of sounds have which aspect?

• A. Normally heard in the lungs
• B. Hollow sounds heard over the trachea and larynx
• C. Rustling sounds heard over the peripheral lung fields
• D. Abnormal sounds that should not be heard in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Adventitious breath sounds are abnormal sounds that are not normally heard in the lungs. These sounds are added sounds superimposed on the breath sounds. They are caused by air colliding with secretions in the tracheobronchial passageways or when previously deflated airways pop open. Hollow sounds heard over the trachea and larynx are normal bronchial (tracheal) breath sounds, not adventitious. Rustling sounds heard over the peripheral lung fields are normal vesicular breath sounds, not adventitious. Therefore, the correct answer is that adventitious breath sounds are abnormal sounds that should not be heard in the lungs.

5. A nurse is preparing to assist the healthcare provider in performing an internal gynecological examination of a client. In which position does the nurse place the client for this examination?

• A. Prone
• B. Left side-lying
• C. Sims
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An internal gynecological examination is performed with the client in the lithotomy position. In this position, the client is supine, with the feet in stirrups, the knees apart, and the buttocks at the end of the examining table. The client is draped so that only the vulva is exposed. The lithotomy position provides optimal access for the healthcare provider to perform the examination effectively. The prone position refers to lying on the stomach, which is not suitable for a gynecological exam. The Sims position is a left side-lying position primarily used for administering enemas, not for gynecological examinations.

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