Nursing Elites

1. The client with ulcerative colitis calls the clinic and reports increasing abdominal pain and increased frequency of loose stools. He asks to clarify what type of diet he is to follow. Which diet is best for clients with ulcerative colitis?

• A. High vitamin
• B. High calorie
• C. Low sugar
• D. Low fiber

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Low fiber.' Clients with ulcerative colitis should follow a low-residue diet, which means consuming low fiber to reduce the frequency and volume of stools, helping to alleviate symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhea. High fiber diets can worsen the condition by stimulating bowel movements. Choice A, 'High vitamin,' is incorrect as the focus is on fiber content rather than vitamins. Choice B, 'High calorie,' is not specifically recommended for ulcerative colitis and may not address the symptoms effectively. Choice C, 'Low sugar,' does not directly address the dietary needs of clients with ulcerative colitis as the issue is more related to fiber intake than sugar consumption.

2. Which physiologic mechanism best describes the function of the sodium-potassium pump?

• A. active transport
• B. diffusion
• C. filtration
• D. osmosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Active transport is the correct answer as it accurately describes the process involved in the sodium-potassium pump. The pump utilizes energy to move ions against their concentration gradient, maintaining cellular concentrations. Diffusion (choice B) is a passive process where substances move from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration. Filtration (choice C) involves the movement of solutes based on pressure gradients. Osmosis (choice D) is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.

3. How can a nurse recognize that a chronic renal failure client's AV shunt is patent?

• A. Absence of a bruit
• B. Presence of a thrill
• C. Blood return from the shunt
• D. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct assessment to determine the patency of an AV shunt in a chronic renal failure client is the presence of a thrill. A thrill is a vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the shunt site, indicating good blood flow through the shunt. While the presence of a bruit is also important for assessing an AV shunt, a thrill is a more specific indicator of patency. Blood return from the shunt is related to cannulation and not necessarily an indicator of patency. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr is not directly related to the assessment of an AV shunt's patency.

4. After a client with an Automated Internal Cardiac Defibrillator (AICD) is successfully defibrillated for Ventricular Fibrillation (VF), what should the nurse do next?

• A. Go to the client to assess for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output.
• B. Call the physician to inform them of the VF episode for medication adjustments.
• C. Call the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD in case of a recurrence.
• D. Document the incident on the code report form and follow up regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a client is successfully defibrillated, the immediate priority is to assess the client for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output, such as altered level of consciousness, chest pain, shortness of breath, or hypotension. This assessment is crucial to determine the effectiveness of the defibrillation and the client's current hemodynamic status. Calling the physician for medication adjustments without assessing the client first could delay essential interventions. Contacting the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD is not the initial action needed after successful defibrillation. Documenting the incident is important but should not take precedence over assessing the client's immediate condition.

5. The client is preparing to undergo a total hysterectomy for advanced cervical cancer. The client is crying and says that she wants to have more children and is unsure if she should have the procedure. What should the nurse do?

• A. Allow the client to honestly discuss her fears and encourage her to talk more with her physician.
• B. Tell her the good things that she will be able to do without more children and encourage her to make a list of positive things.
• C. Explain to the client that her ovaries can be frozen for egg harvesting at a later time and she can find a surrogate.
• D. Advise the client to put off having the surgery until she is sure that she wants to undergo the procedure and notify the surgeon of the decision.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse is to allow the client to express her fears and concerns openly. By encouraging her to talk more with her physician, the nurse is promoting effective communication and ensuring that the client receives adequate information to make an informed decision. Option A is correct because it acknowledges the client's emotions and empowers her to seek clarification and support from her healthcare provider. Options B and C do not address the client's emotional needs or provide a solution to her concerns regarding fertility. Option D is not appropriate as it does not prioritize the client's emotional well-being and delays necessary medical treatment for advanced cervical cancer.

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