Nursing Elites

1. The client with ulcerative colitis calls the clinic and reports increasing abdominal pain and increased frequency of loose stools. He asks to clarify what type of diet he is to follow. Which diet is best for clients with ulcerative colitis?

• A. High vitamin
• B. High calorie
• C. Low sugar
• D. Low fiber

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Low fiber.' Clients with ulcerative colitis should follow a low-residue diet, which means consuming low fiber to reduce the frequency and volume of stools, helping to alleviate symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhea. High fiber diets can worsen the condition by stimulating bowel movements. Choice A, 'High vitamin,' is incorrect as the focus is on fiber content rather than vitamins. Choice B, 'High calorie,' is not specifically recommended for ulcerative colitis and may not address the symptoms effectively. Choice C, 'Low sugar,' does not directly address the dietary needs of clients with ulcerative colitis as the issue is more related to fiber intake than sugar consumption.

2. Which of the following should be included in a diet rich in iron?

• A. peaches, eggs, beef
• B. cereals, kale, cheese
• C. red beans, enriched breads, squash
• D. legumes, green beans, eggs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is peaches, eggs, beef. These are good sources of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to nonheme iron. Heme iron is mainly found in animal-based foods like meat, poultry, and fish. Peaches, eggs, and beef are rich in iron and can help prevent iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not include significant sources of heme iron. Cereals, kale, cheese, red beans, enriched breads, squash, legumes, and green beans are sources of nonheme iron, which is not as efficiently absorbed by the body as heme iron. It is important to include heme iron sources in the diet for optimal iron absorption.

3. Which of the following lab values would indicate symptomatic AIDS in the medical chart? (T4 cell count per deciliter)

• A. Greater than 1000 cells per deciliter
• B. Less than 500 cells per deciliter
• C. Greater than 2000 cells per deciliter
• D. Less than 200 cells per deciliter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A T4 cell count of less than 200 cells per deciliter indicates symptomatic AIDS. This severe depletion of T4 cells signifies advanced HIV infection and a significantly compromised immune system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because T4 cell counts above 2000, above 1000, or below 500 cells per deciliter, respectively, are not indicative of symptomatic AIDS.

4. A client returns to the nursing unit post-thoracotomy with two chest tubes in place connected to a drainage device. The client's spouse asks the nurse about the reason for having two chest tubes. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that the upper chest tube is placed to:

• A. Remove air from the pleural space
• B. Create access for irrigating the chest cavity
• C. Evacuate secretions from the bronchioles and alveoli
• D. Drain blood and fluid from the pleural space

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Remove air from the pleural space.' When a client has two chest tubes in place post-thoracotomy, the upper chest tube is typically positioned to remove air from the pleural space. Air rises, so placing the tube at the top allows for efficient removal of air that has accumulated in the pleural cavity. Choice B, creating access for irrigating the chest cavity, is incorrect as chest tubes are not primarily used for irrigation. Choice C, evacuating secretions from the bronchioles and alveoli, is incorrect as chest tubes are not designed for this purpose. Choice D, draining blood and fluid from the pleural space, is also incorrect as the upper chest tube in this scenario is specifically for removing air, not blood or fluid.

5. If your patient is acutely psychotic, which of the following independent nursing interventions would not be appropriate?

• A. Conveying calmness through one-on-one interaction
• B. Recognizing and managing your own feelings to prevent escalation of the patient's anxiety level
• C. Encouraging client participation in group therapy
• D. Listening and identifying causes of their behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is acutely psychotic, they may not be able to effectively participate in group therapy due to their altered mental state. Group settings can be overwhelming and may exacerbate the patient's symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate interventions. Choice A is correct as providing calmness through one-on-one interaction can be beneficial in establishing trust and reducing anxiety. Choice B is also important as recognizing and managing the nurse's feelings can prevent further escalation of the patient's symptoms. Choice D is relevant as listening and identifying causes of the patient's behavior can aid in understanding and providing appropriate care tailored to the patient's needs.

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