Nursing Elites

1. The nurse manager is having a problem on the unit with one staff person having repetitive tardiness and leaving the unit with orders not initiated. Which action by the manager would be best?

• A. Call the staff nurse in and place them on a work improvement plan after a 3-day suspension
• B. Have the other staff gather additional information on the tardy staff member
• C. Call the staff nurse in for an interview to investigate the problem and possible solutions
• D. Assign a mentor to assist the staff member in arriving on time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse manager would be to call the staff nurse in for an interview to discuss the issues of repetitive tardiness and incomplete tasks. This approach allows the staff member to explain the situation, and together with the manager, develop a plan to address the problems. Choice A is incorrect as it immediately involves suspension without investigation or support. Choice B is not the best course of action as it does not involve direct communication with the staff member in question. Choice D, assigning a mentor to help the staff member, could be beneficial but does not directly address the immediate issues of tardiness and incomplete tasks.

2. A child presents to the school nurse with left knee pain after suffering a fall on the playground. Which action should the nurse do first?

• A. Instruct the child to extend the affected knee
• B. Perform range of motion exercises on both knees
• C. Compare the appearance of the left knee to the right knee
• D. Have the child soak the affected knee in warm water

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Comparing the appearance of the left knee to the right knee is the most appropriate initial action as it provides a baseline for assessing any visible differences such as swelling, bruising, or deformities. This comparison helps the nurse identify any acute changes in the affected knee's appearance after the fall. Instructing the child to extend the affected knee (Choice A) may worsen the pain or cause further injury. Performing range of motion exercises on both knees (Choice B) could exacerbate the pain and should be avoided until a proper assessment is done. Having the child soak the affected knee in warm water (Choice D) is not the priority at this stage as assessing for any physical changes is more crucial.

3. What type of diet is appropriate for a client with chronic cirrhosis?

• A. High calorie, low protein
• B. High protein, high calorie
• C. Low fat, low sodium
• D. High calorie, low sodium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct diet for a client with chronic cirrhosis is high calorie, low protein. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired protein metabolism, making it essential to limit protein intake. High-calorie foods help meet the client's energy needs. Choice B (High protein, high calorie) is incorrect because high protein intake can worsen hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C (Low fat, low sodium) is not the most appropriate diet for cirrhosis as the focus should be on calories and protein. Choice D (High calorie, low sodium) does not address the need to restrict protein intake, which is crucial in cirrhosis.

4. Which of the following is not a primary function of the kidneys?

• A. blood pressure control
• B. vitamin D activation
• C. erythropoietin production
• D. reabsorption of waste products

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is reabsorption of waste products because the kidneys excrete waste products rather than reabsorbing them. Choices A, B, and C are indeed primary functions of the kidneys. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure, activating vitamin D, and producing erythropoietin, which stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, the primary role of the kidneys is to filter blood, remove waste products, regulate fluid balance, and maintain electrolyte balance.

5. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

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