NCLEX-PN
Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet
1. In which of the following conditions might increased cortisol levels be found?
- A. Cushing's syndrome
 - B. Addison's disease
 - C. Renal failure
 - D. Congestive heart failure
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cushing's syndrome is characterized by increased cortisol levels due to the overproduction of cortisol by the adrenal glands. This excess cortisol can lead to various symptoms and complications. Addison's disease is associated with decreased cortisol levels as it results from adrenal insufficiency, making it an incorrect choice in this context. Renal failure and congestive heart failure are not typically linked to abnormal cortisol levels, further indicating that they are not the conditions where increased cortisol levels are found.
2. When are standard walkers typically used?
- A. When clients have poor balance, cannot stand up, have weak arms, and good hand strength.
 - B. When clients have poor balance, have a broken leg, or have experienced amputation.
 - C. When clients have poor balance, have cardiac problems, or cannot use crutches or a cane.
 - D. When clients have poor balance, have an autoimmune disease, or have weak arms.
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Standard walkers are typically used for clients who have poor balance, cardiac problems, or those who cannot use crutches or a cane. The rationale is correct in stating that a walker is suitable for individuals needing to bear partial weight and having strength in their wrists and arms to propel the walker forward. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the main reasons why standard walkers are used in clinical practice. Using a walker is not solely about having weak arms, good hand strength, a broken leg, experienced amputation, or an autoimmune disease. The primary focus is on addressing balance issues, cardiac problems, or the inability to use crutches or a cane effectively.
3. Which is an appropriate outcome for the nursing diagnosis of Body Image Disturbance for a client with anorexia nervosa?
- A. The client verbalizes knowledge of a maintenance diet.
 - B. The client demonstrates assertiveness with family.
 - C. The client verbalizes her body size accurately.
 - D. The client demonstrates control of obsessive behaviors.
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'The client verbalizes her body size accurately.' For clients with anorexia nervosa, body image disturbance is a common issue where they perceive themselves inaccurately. Verbalizing her body size accurately indicates progress towards correcting this distorted self-perception. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the distorted body image perception seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. Choice A focuses on knowledge of a maintenance diet, which is unrelated to body image perception. Choice B involves assertiveness with family, which is more related to family dynamics. Choice D addresses control of obsessive behaviors, which is not directly related to correcting the distorted body image perception.
4. Which of the following are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?
- A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
 - B. Protease inhibitors
 - C. HIV fusion inhibitors
 - D. All of the above
 
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV-1 protease enzyme, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, all the choices provided are valid antiviral drug classes for managing HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and HIV fusion inhibitors play crucial roles in combating the virus at different stages. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors target an early stage, protease inhibitors act on a later stage, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent viral entry. Thus, 'All of the above' is the correct and comprehensive answer encompassing different mechanisms of action in managing HIV/AIDS.
5. A nurse monitoring a client with a chest tube notes that there is no tidaling of fluid in the water seal chamber. After further assessment, the nurse suspects that the client's lung has reexpanded and notifies the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider verifies with the use of a chest x-ray that the lung has reexpanded, then calls the nurse to ask that the chest tube be removed. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Explain the procedure to the client, then remove the chest tube.
 - B. Call the nursing supervisor.
 - C. Inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure.
 - D. Obtain petrolatum-impregnated gauze and ask another nurse to assist in removing the chest tube.
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure. Actual removal of a chest tube is the duty of a healthcare provider. If the healthcare provider insists that the nurse remove the tube, the nurse must contact the nursing supervisor. Some agencies' policies and procedures may permit an advanced practice nurse to remove a chest tube, but there is no information in the question to indicate that the nurse is an advanced practice nurse. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should not proceed with removing the chest tube without proper authorization. Choice B is incorrect as calling the nursing supervisor should come after clarifying with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not begin the process of removing the chest tube without proper guidance and authorization.
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