Nursing Elites

1. While admitting a client to an acute-care psychiatric unit, the nurse asks about substance abuse based on:

• A. psychiatric disorders' higher prevalence in addicted populations
• B. individuals with psychiatric disorders' increased susceptibility to substance abuse
• C. the importance of detecting and diagnosing substance disorders in acute-care psychiatric settings
• D. the significant impact of undetected substance problems on the treatment of psychiatric disorders

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'individuals with psychiatric disorders' increased susceptibility to substance abuse.' It is crucial to inquire about substance abuse during admission to an acute-care psychiatric unit because individuals with psychiatric disorders are more prone to experiencing substance abuse issues. Addressing substance abuse is vital for effective treatment and to prevent relapse in psychiatric disorders. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on the prevalence of psychiatric illness in addicted populations rather than the relationship between psychiatric disorders and substance abuse. Option C is incorrect as it exaggerates the ease of detecting and diagnosing substance disorders in acute-care psychiatric settings. Option D is incorrect as undetected substance problems can indeed significantly impact the treatment of psychiatric disorders, but the main reason for inquiring about substance abuse is the increased susceptibility of individuals with psychiatric disorders to such issues.

2. In a brief treatment program for a client who was raped, what is a realistic short-term goal?

• A. Identify all psychosocial problems.
• B. Eliminate the client's enticing behaviors.
• C. Resolve feelings of trauma and fear.
• D. Verbalize feelings about the event.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, a realistic short-term goal for the client who was raped and starting a brief treatment program is to verbalize feelings about the event. This goal promotes the expression of emotions, which is crucial in the healing process. Identifying all psychosocial problems is too broad and not typically achievable in a brief treatment program. Eliminating the client's enticing behaviors is not a suitable short-term goal as the focus should be on emotional recovery. While resolving feelings of trauma and fear is important, verbalizing feelings about the event is a more specific and achievable goal in the short term.

3. When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. A history of radiation treatment in the neck region
• B. A history of recent orthopedic surgery
• C. A history of minimal physical activity
• D. A history of the client's food intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.

4. A complication of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is the development of cholestasis. What is this condition?

• A. an inflammatory process of the extrahepatic bile ducts
• B. an arrest of the normal flow of bile
• C. an inflammation of the gallbladder
• D. the formation of gallstones

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cholestasis due to TPN administration is an intrahepatic process that interrupts the normal flow of bile. It is characterized by a reduction or stoppage of bile flow. Choice A, an inflammatory process of the extrahepatic bile ducts, refers to cholangitis, not cholestasis. Choice C, an inflammation of the gallbladder, describes cholecystitis, a different condition. Choice D, the formation of gallstones, is not correct as cholestasis is about the flow of bile, not the formation of gallstones.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to assess the acoustic nerve during a neurological examination. To assess this nerve, the provider uses which technique?

• A. Uses a tuning fork
• B. Asks the client to puff out the cheeks
• C. Tests taste perception on the client's tongue
• D. Checks the client's ability to clench the teeth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Testing of cranial nerve VIII (acoustic nerve) involves assessing hearing acuity through techniques like the whispered voice test and tuning fork tests (Weber and Rinne). Using a tuning fork helps determine if sound lateralizes to one ear (Weber) and compares air conduction to bone conduction (Rinne). Asking the client to puff out the cheeks is for cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function evaluation. Testing taste perception on the tongue assesses cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) function. Checking the ability to clench teeth assesses cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) motor function.

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