Nursing Elites

1. During a petit mal seizure in the clinic, what should be the highest priority?

• A. Provide a safe environment free of obstructions in the immediate area
• B. Call a code
• C. Contact the patient's physician
• D. Prevent excessive movement of the extremities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a petit mal seizure, the highest priority is to provide a safe environment free of obstructions in the immediate area. This action aims to prevent injuries to the patient during the seizure. While calling a code or contacting the patient's physician may be necessary at some point, immediate safety measures take precedence. Preventing excessive movement of the extremities is relevant but ensuring a safe environment is crucial to avoid harm during the seizure.

2. When preparing a client for platelet pheresis in the blood bank, which information is most significant to obtain during the history assessment?

• A. Allergies to shellfish
• B. Date of last platelet donation
• C. Time of last oral intake
• D. Blood type

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most significant information to gather when a client is scheduled for platelet pheresis is the date of their last platelet donation. Platelet donors can typically have their platelets apheresed as frequently as every 14 days. Knowing the date of the last donation helps ensure the client is eligible for the procedure without risking any adverse effects from frequent donations. Allergies to shellfish may be important for other procedures where anticoagulants containing heparin are used, but it is not directly related to platelet pheresis. The time of the last oral intake is more crucial for procedures requiring sedation or anesthesia. Blood type is significant for blood transfusions but is not the primary concern for platelet pheresis.

3. A nurse suspects a patient is developing Bell's Palsy. The nurse wants to test the function of cranial nerve VII. Which of the following would be the most appropriate testing procedures?

• A. Test the taste sensation over the back of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles.
• B. Test the taste sensation over the front of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles.
• C. Test the sensation of the facial muscles and sensation of the back of the tongue.
• D. Test the sensation of the facial muscles and sensation of the front of the tongue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The facial nerve (VII) is responsible for motor function to the face and sensory function to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Therefore, to appropriately test the function of cranial nerve VII, the most appropriate testing procedures involve assessing the taste sensation over the front of the tongue (sensory) and activation of the facial muscles (motor). Option B, 'Test the taste sensation over the front of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles,' is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the correct combination of sensory testing over the front of the tongue and motor activation of the facial muscles, which are key functions associated with cranial nerve VII.

4. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk for suicide?

• A. 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure
• B. 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy
• C. 28-year-old post-partum crying weekly
• D. 50-year-old client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and depression

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure. Elderly individuals with chronic diseases, especially men, are at very high risk for suicide. The other choices, although they may be vulnerable populations, do not carry as high a risk for suicide. The 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy may actually have a lower risk as they are receiving treatment. The 28-year-old post-partum individual is experiencing a common emotional response after childbirth, which is not necessarily indicative of a high suicide risk. The 50-year-old with OCD and depression is at risk but not as high as elderly individuals with chronic illness.

5. Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children include all of the following except:

• A. nasal flaring
• B. grunting
• C. seesaw breathing
• D. quivering lips

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children can manifest in various ways. Nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing are all indicative of respiratory distress in pediatric patients. Nasal flaring is the widening of the nostrils with breathing effort, grunting is a sound made during exhalation to try to keep the airways open, and seesaw breathing involves the chest moving in the opposite direction of the abdomen. However, quivering lips are not typically associated with impaired breathing in this context. Lip quivering is a distracter and not a common sign of respiratory distress in infants and children. Therefore, the correct answer is 'quivering lips.'

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