Nursing Elites

1. During a petit mal seizure in the clinic, what should be the highest priority?

• A. Provide a safe environment free of obstructions in the immediate area
• B. Call a code
• C. Contact the patient's physician
• D. Prevent excessive movement of the extremities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a petit mal seizure, the highest priority is to provide a safe environment free of obstructions in the immediate area. This action aims to prevent injuries to the patient during the seizure. While calling a code or contacting the patient's physician may be necessary at some point, immediate safety measures take precedence. Preventing excessive movement of the extremities is relevant but ensuring a safe environment is crucial to avoid harm during the seizure.

2. A client has been taking a drug (Drug A) that is highly metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system. He has been on this medication for 6 months. At this time, he is started on a second medication (Drug B) that is an inducer of the cytochrome P-450 system. You should monitor this client for:

• A. increased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
• B. increased adverse effects of Drug B.
• C. decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
• D. decreased therapeutic effects of Drug B.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is taking a drug (Drug A) metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system and is then started on another drug (Drug B) that induces this system, the metabolism of Drug A is increased. This results in decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A as it is broken down more rapidly. Monitoring is required to address potential reduced efficacy. The therapeutic effect of Drug A is diminished, not enhanced. Inducing the cytochrome P-450 system does not directly increase the adverse effects of Drug B. Although Drug B is an inducer, its therapeutic effects are not decreased as it is not metabolized faster.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's ECG report. The patient exhibits a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and short QT interval. Which of the following medications can cause all of the above effects?

• A. Morphine
• B. Atropine
• C. Procardia
• D. Digitalis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Digitalis. Digitalis is known to cause a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and a short QT interval on an ECG report. These ECG changes are characteristic of digitalis toxicity. Morphine is not typically associated with these ECG changes. Atropine is more commonly linked to increasing heart rate rather than causing these specific ECG abnormalities. Procardia is a calcium channel blocker that does not typically produce the described ECG findings. Therefore, Digitalis is the most likely medication causing these effects in the patient.

4. A person who had a left CVA and right lower extremity hemiparesis is being instructed by a nurse to use a quad cane. Which of the following is the most appropriate gait sequence?

• A. Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane, then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.
• B. Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane, then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait sequence.
• C. Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage cane, then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.
• D. Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage cane, then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait sequence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct gait sequence for a person with left CVA and right lower extremity hemiparesis using a quad cane is to place the cane in the patient's strong upper extremity, which is the left upper extremity in this case. The correct sequence should be right lower extremity followed by left upper extremity, as this pattern mimics a normal gait pattern. Therefore, Choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the proper gait sequence for this specific patient's condition. The cane should be placed in the strong upper extremity, and the affected lower extremity should move first to provide stability and support, which is essential in this situation.

5. A 13-year-old girl is admitted to the ER with lower right abdominal discomfort. What should the admitting nurse do first?

• A. Administer Loritab to the patient for pain relief.
• B. Place the patient in a right sidelying position for pressure relief.
• C. Start a Central Line.
• D. Provide pain reduction techniques without administering medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a case of lower right abdominal discomfort, the first step should be to provide pain reduction techniques without administering medication. Administering pain medication or starting a central line should not be done without medical orders. Placing the patient in a right sidelying position may help with pressure relief, but addressing pain reduction techniques without medication is the initial priority in this scenario. It is essential to assess the patient further, consult with a healthcare provider, and follow the appropriate protocols before administering any medication or invasive procedures like starting a central line.

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