Nursing Elites

1. During a petit mal seizure in the clinic, what should be the highest priority?

• A. Provide a safe environment free of obstructions in the immediate area
• B. Call a code
• C. Contact the patient's physician
• D. Prevent excessive movement of the extremities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a petit mal seizure, the highest priority is to provide a safe environment free of obstructions in the immediate area. This action aims to prevent injuries to the patient during the seizure. While calling a code or contacting the patient's physician may be necessary at some point, immediate safety measures take precedence. Preventing excessive movement of the extremities is relevant but ensuring a safe environment is crucial to avoid harm during the seizure.

2. The client is preparing to learn about the effects of isoniazid (INH). Which information is essential for the client to understand?

• A. Isoniazid should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• B. Prolonged use of isoniazid may result in dark, concentrated urine.
• C. Taking aluminum hydroxide (Maalox) with isoniazid can enhance the drug's effects.
• D. Consuming alcohol daily can increase the risk of drug-induced hepatitis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: It is crucial for the client to understand that consuming alcohol while on isoniazid can increase the risk of drug-induced hepatitis. Hepatic damage can lead to dark, concentrated urine. To minimize gastrointestinal upset, it is recommended to take isoniazid with meals rather than on an empty stomach. Additionally, the client should avoid taking aluminum-containing antacids like aluminum hydroxide with isoniazid, as it can reduce the drug's effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because isoniazid should not be taken on an empty stomach to help reduce GI upset. Choice B is incorrect, as prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark, concentrated urine. Choice C is incorrect as taking aluminum hydroxide with isoniazid does not enhance the drug's effects; in fact, it may decrease its effectiveness.

3. A patient asks a nurse the following question: Exposure to TB can be best identified with which of the following procedures?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Mantoux test
• C. Breath sounds examination
• D. Sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Mantoux test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is the most appropriate and accurate test to identify exposure to TB. This test involves injecting a small amount of PPD tuberculin under the top layer of the skin, and a positive reaction indicates exposure to the TB bacteria. Choice A, a chest x-ray, is useful for detecting active TB disease but not exposure. Choice C, a breath sounds examination, is not a specific test for TB exposure. Choice D, a sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is used to diagnose active TB infection rather than exposure.

4. A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP"?nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?

• A. Cushingoid appearance
• B. Alopecia
• C. Temporary or permanent sterility
• D. Pathologic fractures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine can cause alopecia, which is hair loss. This side effect can significantly impact a patient's body image. While Cushingoid appearance (A) can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, temporary or permanent sterility (C) may affect a patient's future fertility but not necessarily alter body image. Pathologic fractures (D) are not common side effects of Hodgkin's disease or its treatment and do not directly contribute to a sense of altered body image in the same way as alopecia does.

5. What is the preferred position for a client post liver biopsy procedure?

• A. Fowler's
• B. Right side
• C. Left side
• D. Prone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct position for a client post liver biopsy procedure is the right side. Placing the client on the right side helps apply pressure to the liver area, which can help in holding pressure and stopping bleeding. Placing the client on the left side may not be as effective in providing direct pressure on the liver. The prone position is also not ideal for post-liver biopsy care as it does not target the liver area directly. Fowler's position, a semi-sitting position, is not typically recommended post liver biopsy as it does not provide the necessary pressure on the liver site.

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