Nursing Elites

1. The client is preparing to undergo a total hysterectomy for advanced cervical cancer. The client is crying and says that she wants to have more children and is unsure if she should have the procedure. What should the nurse do?

• A. Allow the client to honestly discuss her fears and encourage her to talk more with her physician.
• B. Tell her the good things that she will be able to do without more children and encourage her to make a list of positive things.
• C. Explain to the client that her ovaries can be frozen for egg harvesting at a later time and she can find a surrogate.
• D. Advise the client to put off having the surgery until she is sure that she wants to undergo the procedure and notify the surgeon of the decision.

Correct answer: Allow the client to honestly discuss her fears and encourage her to talk more with her physician.

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse is to allow the client to express her fears and concerns openly. By encouraging her to talk more with her physician, the nurse is promoting effective communication and ensuring that the client receives adequate information to make an informed decision. Option A is correct because it acknowledges the client's emotions and empowers her to seek clarification and support from her healthcare provider. Options B and C do not address the client's emotional needs or provide a solution to her concerns regarding fertility. Option D is not appropriate as it does not prioritize the client's emotional well-being and delays necessary medical treatment for advanced cervical cancer.

2. In the treatment of symptomatic bradycardia, which medication is most commonly recognized?

• A. Questran
• B. Digitalis
• C. Nitroglycerin
• D. Atropine

Correct answer: Atropine

Rationale: Atropine is the medication most commonly recognized for the treatment of symptomatic bradycardia because it increases the rate of conduction in the AV node, helping to alleviate bradycardia. Questran is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for bradycardia. Digitalis, such as Digoxin, is used for heart failure and atrial fibrillation but not typically for bradycardia. Nitroglycerin is primarily used for angina and not bradycardia.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s ECG report. The patient exhibits a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and short QT interval. Which of the following medications can cause all of the above effects?

• A. Morphine
• B. Atropine
• C. Procardia
• D. Digitalis

Correct answer: Digitalis

Rationale: The correct answer is Digitalis. Digitalis is known to cause a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and a short QT interval on an ECG report. These ECG changes are characteristic of digitalis toxicity. Morphine is not typically associated with these ECG changes. Atropine is more commonly linked to increasing heart rate rather than causing these specific ECG abnormalities. Procardia is a calcium channel blocker that does not typically produce the described ECG findings. Therefore, Digitalis is the most likely medication causing these effects in the patient.

4. A client newly diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus needs education. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in this education?

• A. “You can eat anything you want, but avoid foods with sugar.”
• B. “You need to lose weight, so your diet must be controlled.”
• C. “You need a diet and exercise program.”
• D. “You must reduce salt, fat, and sugar intake in your diet.”

Correct answer: “You need a diet and exercise program.”

Rationale: A client newly diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus requires education on managing their condition. Choice C is the correct answer because it emphasizes the importance of a comprehensive approach involving both diet and exercise. This holistic approach is crucial in managing blood sugar levels and overall health for individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect as it provides misleading information by suggesting that the client can eat anything as long as it doesn't contain sugar, which is not accurate for diabetes management. Choice B is not the best option as it focuses solely on weight loss rather than addressing the holistic needs of a diabetic individual. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests eliminating all salt, fat, and sugar, which is an extreme approach and not a realistic or balanced way to manage diabetes.

5. Which of the following infant behaviors demonstrates the concept of object permanence?

• A. The infant cries when his mother leaves the room.
• B. The infant looks at the floor to find a toy that he was playing with and dropped.
• C. The infant picks up another toy after the one he was playing with rolls under the couch.
• D. The infant participates in a game of patty-cake.

Correct answer: The infant looks at the floor to find a toy that he was playing with and dropped.

Rationale: Object permanence occurs when the infant learns that something or someone still exists even though they might not be able to see it or them. This typically develops between 9 and 10 months of age. The correct answer, 'The infant looks at the floor to find a toy that he was playing with and dropped,' demonstrates object permanence as the infant understands that the toy still exists even though it is temporarily out of sight. Choices A and C do not directly relate to object permanence as the behaviors described do not necessarily indicate an understanding of objects existing when out of sight. Choice D is incorrect as participating in a game of patty-cake does not involve demonstrating object permanence. Peek-a-boo is a more suitable example of a game that demonstrates object permanence, as the infant continues to look for the hidden face, understanding that it still exists even though temporarily unseen.

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