Nursing Elites

1. The client asks the nurse not to tell anyone outside of the care team about his positive HIV diagnosis. What response is most appropriate?

• A. "I have to inform all clients on the unit of your diagnosis as it is transmissible."?
• B. "I will not communicate your diagnosis to anyone without your permission."?
• C. "Because this is a communicable disease, it may need to be reported to the CDC."?
• D. "You should not be concerned with who I share your diagnosis with."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response is C: "Because this is a communicable disease, it may need to be reported to the CDC."? It is important to uphold patient confidentiality, but in the case of certain communicable diseases like HIV, there are legal requirements for mandatory reporting to public health authorities such as the CDC. Option A is incorrect because it violates patient confidentiality and does not consider legal obligations. Option B, while respecting the client's wishes, may not align with the legal requirement for reporting certain communicable diseases. Option D is inappropriate as it dismisses the client's concerns and rights regarding their health information.

2. To ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort when using a rigid splint, what should be done?

• A. Place the client on a stretcher before splinting.
• B. Place the client on a long spine board before splinting.
• C. Pad the spaces between the body part and the splint.
• D. Ensure that the splint conforms to the body curves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct. When using a rigid splint, it is essential to pad the spaces between the body part and the splint to ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort. This padding helps prevent pressure points and ensures a proper fit of the splint without causing discomfort. Placing the client on a stretcher or a long spine board before splinting (choices A and B) may be necessary for transportation but does not directly relate to the proper use of a rigid splint. Ensuring that the splint conforms to the body curves (choice D) is important but not as crucial as padding the spaces to prevent discomfort and ensure proper immobilization.

3. A nurse monitoring a client with a chest tube notes that there is no tidaling of fluid in the water seal chamber. After further assessment, the nurse suspects that the client's lung has reexpanded and notifies the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider verifies with the use of a chest x-ray that the lung has reexpanded, then calls the nurse to ask that the chest tube be removed. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Explain the procedure to the client, then remove the chest tube.
• B. Call the nursing supervisor.
• C. Inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure.
• D. Obtain petrolatum-impregnated gauze and ask another nurse to assist in removing the chest tube.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure. Actual removal of a chest tube is the duty of a healthcare provider. If the healthcare provider insists that the nurse remove the tube, the nurse must contact the nursing supervisor. Some agencies' policies and procedures may permit an advanced practice nurse to remove a chest tube, but there is no information in the question to indicate that the nurse is an advanced practice nurse. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should not proceed with removing the chest tube without proper authorization. Choice B is incorrect as calling the nursing supervisor should come after clarifying with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not begin the process of removing the chest tube without proper guidance and authorization.

4. A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.

5. Under what circumstances can an individual receive medical care without giving informed consent?

• A. when the durable power of attorney for health care is not available
• B. in an emergency, life-or-death situation
• C. when the physician is not available for discussion with the client
• D. when they (clients) are not able to speak for themselves

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An individual may receive medical care without giving informed consent in an emergency, life-or-death situation. This exception allows healthcare providers to provide immediate treatment to save a person's life or prevent serious harm when time is of the essence. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in all other situations, informed consent is required. The durable power of attorney for health care should be involved if available, the physician should have a discussion with the client in non-life-threatening situations, and in cases where clients are unable to speak for themselves, their designated representative or responsible party should be involved in the consent process.

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