Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Primary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

2. What is the intent of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) of 1990?

• A. Enhance personal control over healthcare decisions.
• B. Encourage medical treatment decision making prior to need.
• C. Establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney.
• D. Emphasize client education.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The purpose of the PSDA is to encourage medical treatment decision-making before it becomes necessary. This legislation aims to empower individuals to make their own healthcare choices in advance. Choice A is incorrect because while enhancing personal control over healthcare decisions is important, the primary goal of the PSDA is to facilitate medical decision-making before the need arises. Choice C is incorrect as the PSDA does not establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney; instead, it encourages individuals to create their own advance directives according to state-specific regulations. Choice D is incorrect because while client education is valuable, the main focus of the PSDA is on empowering individuals to plan for their future healthcare needs.

3. What is one of the main goals of Healthy People 2010?

• A. reduction of health care costs
• B. elimination of health disparities
• C. investigation of substance abuse
• D. determination of an acceptable morbidity rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main goal of Healthy People 2010 is the elimination of health disparities among the U.S. population. This initiative outlines specific objectives to improve the overall health of Americans by addressing disparities in health outcomes. Choice A, reduction of health care costs, is not the primary goal of Healthy People 2010, although it may be a beneficial outcome. Choice C, investigation of substance abuse, is not a main goal of Healthy People 2010; while substance abuse may be a factor in health disparities, the primary focus is on broader disparities. Choice D, determination of an acceptable morbidity rate, is not the main focus of Healthy People 2010; instead, it aims to address health disparities in different population groups.

4. A client is scheduled to undergo a Papanicolaou (Pap) test in 1 week. Which statement does the nurse make to the client?

• A. 'If you are menstruating, use pads instead of a tampon.'
• B. 'Avoid intercourse for 24 hours before the scheduled examination.'
• C. 'Get a douching kit from the pharmacy and douche 2 hours before the examination.'
• D. 'If you are having a vaginal discharge, obtain a sample of the discharge for inspection.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid intercourse for 24 hours before the scheduled examination.' The Pap test is used to screen for cervical cancer. It is not performed during menstruation or if a heavy infectious discharge is present. Before the test, the client should not douche, have intercourse, or insert anything into the vagina within 24 hours. Instructing the client to use pads instead of a tampon when menstruating can interfere with the test results due to the presence of blood. Douching before the exam is discouraged as it can alter the cervical cells' appearance, affecting the test's accuracy. Obtaining a sample of vaginal discharge for inspection is not a standard pre-Pap test instruction and is unnecessary for the test.

5. Which of the following are included in the Rights of Medication Administration? Select all that apply.

• A. Right dose, right time, right explanation, right client, right route
• B. Right dose, right time, right client, right route
• C. Right dose, right time, right client
• D. Right time, right explanation, right client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Rights of Medication Administration include the right client, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time. An additional right that is sometimes included is the right documentation. The correct answer includes the essential rights that must be ensured during medication administration. Choice A is incorrect as 'right explanation' is not part of the traditional Rights of Medication Administration. Choice B is incorrect as 'right explanation' is not included, and choice C is missing the right route. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks the right dose and right route.

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