Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Primary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

2. When inspecting the ears for cerumen impaction, the nurse checks for which finding?

• A. Redness and swelling of the tympanic membrane
• B. An external auditory canal that is longer than normal
• C. The presence of edema in the external auditory canal
• D. A yellowish or brownish waxy material in the external auditory canal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When inspecting the ears for cerumen impaction, the nurse should look for a yellowish or brownish waxy material in the external auditory canal. Cerumen, also known as ear wax, is a secretion that can become impacted due to various reasons. It is produced by the vestigial apocrine sweat glands in the external ear canal. Cerumen may partially obscure the eardrum or totally occlude the ear canal. The other options, redness and swelling of the tympanic membrane, an external auditory canal that is longer than normal, and the presence of edema in the external auditory canal, are not indicative findings of cerumen impaction.

3. An Rh-negative woman with previous sensitization has delivered an Rh-positive fetus. Which of the following nursing actions should be included in the client's care plan?

• A. emotional support to help the family cope with feelings of guilt about the infant's condition
• B. administration of MICRhoGam to the woman within 72 hours of delivery
• C. administration of Rh-immune globulin to the newborn within 1 hour of delivery
• D. lab analysis of maternal Direct Coombs' test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the Rh-negative woman has been sensitized, posing a risk to any Rh-positive fetus she delivers. The most appropriate nursing action is to provide emotional support to help the family cope with the infant's condition. This includes addressing potential outcomes like death or neurological damage. Administering MICRhoGam (Choice B) to a sensitized woman is not recommended; it is only given post-abortion or ectopic pregnancy to prevent sensitization. Rh-immune globulin is not administered to the newborn (Choice C) in this case. Analyzing the maternal Direct Coombs' test (Choice D) is unnecessary; instead, an Indirect Coombs' test is used to assess sensitization. Therefore, the correct nursing action is to offer emotional support to the family, acknowledging the challenges they may face.

4. The client has an order for 0.45 mg of Diltiazem. The medication vial has a concentration of 3 mg/mL. How many mL of the drug should be administered?

• A. 0.15 mL
• B. 6.6 mL
• C. 1.5 mL
• D. 0.65 Ml

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the amount of drug to be administered, divide the ordered dose by the concentration of the medication in the vial. In this case, 0.45 mg � 3 mg/mL = 0.15 mL. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.15 mL. Choice B (6.6 mL) is incorrect as it does not result from the correct calculation. Choice C (1.5 mL) is incorrect as it is not the result of dividing the ordered dose by the concentration. Choice D (0.65 mL) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information.

5. All of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except:

• A. hot flashes
• B. loss of reproductive ability
• C. headaches
• D. heart palpitations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Male climacteric, also known as andropause, is a stage in a man's life characterized by a decline in testosterone levels and various physical and emotional changes. While men may experience symptoms like hot flashes, headaches, and heart palpitations during male climacteric, they do not typically lose their reproductive ability. Although fertility may decrease with age due to reduced testosterone production, men do not entirely lose the ability to reproduce. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of reproductive ability.' Choices A, C, and D are symptoms that can be associated with male climacteric, making them incorrect answers.

Similar Questions