NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. A multigravida pregnant woman asks the nurse when she will start to feel fetal movements. Around which week of gestation does the nurse tell the mother that fetal movements are first noticed?
- A. 16 weeks
- B. 6 weeks
- C. 8 weeks
- D. 12 weeks
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Fetal movements (quickening) are first noticed by multigravida pregnant women at 16 to 20 weeks of gestation and gradually increase in frequency and strength. This is when the mother typically begins to feel the baby's movements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fetal movements are not felt as early as 6, 8, or 12 weeks of gestation. At 6 weeks, the embryo's movements are not yet strong enough to be felt by the mother. By 8 weeks, the movements are still too subtle to be perceived. At 12 weeks, although fetal movements start, they are usually not strong enough to be felt by the mother.
2. The nurse is assessing an 18-month-old. Which of these statements made by the parent or caregiver would require follow-up?
- A. I'm worried that my child is not using two-word phrases yet.
- B. My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.
- C. My child seems to have developed separation anxiety when I leave.
- D. I'm letting my child use a spoon to eat.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.' By 18 months of age, children should have taken their first steps and stand well. If a child hasn't made progress by this age, a physical therapy evaluation may be necessary. It is normal for an 18-month-old to start using a spoon to eat. However, the use of two-word phrases is not typically expected until 2 years of age. Separation anxiety is a common developmental phase that typically occurs between 6 and 18 months, so it does not require immediate follow-up. Therefore, the statement about the child not being stable when standing raises a red flag and necessitates further evaluation.
3. A nurse demonstrates the procedure for bathing a newborn to a new mother. The next day, the nurse watches as the mother bathes the infant. The nurse determines that the mother is performing the procedure correctly if the mother performs which action?
- A. Uses a cotton-tipped swab to carefully clean inside the infant's nose
- B. Uncovers only the body part being washed
- C. Washes the diaper area first
- D. Washes the infant's chest first
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When bathing a newborn, it is crucial to follow a specific sequence for thorough cleaning and safety. The correct sequence includes starting with the eyes and face, then moving to the external ear, areas behind the ears, neck, hands, arms, legs, and finally the diaper area. Keeping the infant warm is essential, so only the body part being washed should be uncovered. Using a cotton-tipped swab to clean inside the infant's nose is not recommended due to the risk of injury if the infant moves suddenly. Washing the diaper area first is incorrect as it should be done towards the end of the bath to prevent contamination. Washing the infant's chest first is also incorrect as it deviates from the recommended bathing sequence for a newborn.
4. A 35-year-old Latin-American client wishes to lose weight to reduce her chances of developing heart disease and diabetes. The client states, "I do not know how to make my diet work with the kind of foods that my family eats."? What should the nurse do first to help the client determine a suitable diet for disease prevention?
- A. Provide her with copies of the approved dietary guidelines from the American Diabetic Association and the American Heart Association.
- B. Ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs.
- C. Provide a high-protein diet plan for the client.
- D. Provide the client with information related to risk factors for heart disease and diabetes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs. Assessment is the first step in helping the client establish a suitable diet for disease prevention. By understanding the client's current dietary habits, the nurse can tailor recommendations based on the approved dietary guidelines from the American Diabetic Association and the American Heart Association. Providing a high-protein diet plan without assessing the client's current diet may not align with her cultural preferences or health goals. While educating the client on risk factors for heart disease and diabetes is essential, it is not the initial step in developing a personalized dietary plan.
5. When inspecting the client's eyelids for ptosis, the nurse is checking for which abnormality?
- A. Drooping
- B. Pupil dilation
- C. Pupil constriction
- D. Deviation of ocular movements
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a nurse inspects a client's eyelids for ptosis, they are checking for drooping. Ptosis is a condition characterized by the drooping of the eyelids and can be associated with various disorders such as myasthenia gravis, dysfunction of cranial nerve III, and Bell's palsy. Pupil dilation and constriction are assessed using a flashlight to check pupillary response. Deviation of ocular movements is evaluated by leading the client's eyes through the six cardinal positions of gaze. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct answer is 'Drooping' as it specifically relates to the abnormality associated with ptosis.
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