NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The client has just returned from electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) and is very drowsy. What is the position of choice until the client regains full consciousness?
- A. Supine
- B. Fowlers
- C. Lateral
- D. High Fowlers
Correct answer: Lateral
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lateral.' When a client is very drowsy or sedated, placing them in the lateral position is important to maintain an open airway and allow for drainage of secretions. This position helps prevent airway obstruction and aspiration. Choice A, 'Supine,' is lying flat on the back and may not be ideal for a drowsy client due to the risk of airway compromise. Choice B, 'Fowlers,' is a semi-sitting position that is beneficial for clients with respiratory distress, but it may not be the best choice for a very drowsy individual. Choice D, 'High Fowlers,' is a more upright sitting position, which again may not be suitable for a drowsy client as it does not facilitate airway patency as effectively as the lateral position.
2. During a petit mal seizure in the clinic, what should be the highest priority?
- A. Provide a safe environment free of obstructions in the immediate area
- B. Call a code
- C. Contact the patient’s physician
- D. Prevent excessive movement of the extremities
Correct answer: Provide a safe environment free of obstructions in the immediate area
Rationale: During a petit mal seizure, the highest priority is to provide a safe environment free of obstructions in the immediate area. This action aims to prevent injuries to the patient during the seizure. While calling a code or contacting the patient’s physician may be necessary at some point, immediate safety measures take precedence. Preventing excessive movement of the extremities is relevant but ensuring a safe environment is crucial to avoid harm during the seizure.
3. The nurse is teaching a community health class for cancer prevention and screening. Which individual has the highest risk for colon cancer?
- A. Client with irritable bowel syndrome
- B. Family history of colon polyps
- C. Client with cirrhosis of the liver
- D. History of colon surgery
Correct answer: Family history of colon polyps
Rationale: A family history of colon polyps and/or colon cancer is a significant risk factor for developing colon cancer. Individuals with a family history are more likely to develop colon cancer due to genetic predisposition. While other factors like irritable bowel syndrome, cirrhosis of the liver, and history of colon surgery may contribute to an increased risk of colon cancer, having a family history of colon polyps is the highest risk factor. Irritable bowel syndrome does not directly increase the risk of colon cancer. Cirrhosis of the liver is associated with liver cancer rather than colon cancer. A history of colon surgery may reduce the risk of colon cancer in some cases by removing precancerous polyps.
4. How often should the nurse change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions?
- A. every 24 hours
- B. every 36 hours
- C. every 48 hours
- D. every 72 hours
Correct answer: every 24 hours
Rationale: The correct answer is 'every 24 hours.' Changing the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours is crucial due to the high risk of bacterial growth. Bacterial contamination can lead to serious infections in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals between tubing changes increases the risk of bacterial contamination and infection, compromising patient safety. It is essential to maintain a strict 24-hour schedule to minimize the risk of complications associated with bacterial contamination.
5. Which of the following adverse effects should the client on Floxin be alerted to?
- A. stunting of height in teens and young adults
- B. propensity for anovulatory uterine bleeding
- C. intractable diarrhea
- D. tendon rupture
Correct answer: tendon rupture
Rationale: The correct answer is tendon rupture. Floxin is a quinolone antibiotic commonly used in respiratory infections and pelvic/reproductive infections. One of the rare adverse effects associated with quinolones is tendon sheath rupture, often affecting the Achilles tendon. Therefore, patients taking Floxin should be alerted to the possibility of tendon rupture. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not typically associated with Floxin use and are not common adverse effects of quinolone antibiotics. Stunting of height is not a recognized adverse effect of Floxin. Anovulatory uterine bleeding is not a known side effect of quinolones. Intractable diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Floxin.
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