Nursing Elites

1. The chemotherapeutic agent 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) is ordered for a client as an adjunct measure to surgery. Which statement about chemotherapy is true?

• A. It is a local treatment affecting only tumor cells.
• B. It is a systemic treatment affecting both tumor and normal cells.
• C. It has not yet been proven an effective treatment for cancer.
• D. It is often the drug of choice because it causes few, if any, side effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that chemotherapy is a systemic treatment affecting both tumor and normal cells. 5-FU, as an antimetabolic drug, inhibits DNA synthesis and interferes with cell replication systemically. It affects all rapidly growing cells, including malignant and normal ones. This drug is used as adjuvant therapy for various cancers. Choice A is incorrect because chemotherapy affects both tumor and normal cells, not just tumor cells. Choice C is incorrect as chemotherapy has been proven effective in treating cancer. Choice D is incorrect because chemotherapy often causes side effects like bone marrow depression, anorexia, stomatitis, nausea, and vomiting.

2. If a client is suffering from thyroid storm, the PN can expect to find on assessment:

• A. tachycardia and hyperthermia.
• B. bradycardia and hypothermia.
• C. a large goiter.
• D. a calm, quiet client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In thyroid storm, there is an excess of thyroxine, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and hyperthermia (increased body temperature). Atrial fibrillation and palpitations are also commonly observed. Choices B and C are more indicative of hypothyroidism, where the thyroid is underactive, leading to bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypothermia (decreased body temperature), and the development of a large goiter. Choice D, a calm, quiet client, is unlikely in a thyroid storm where the individual would typically present with symptoms of agitation and restlessness due to the hypermetabolic state.

3. A client was involved in a motor vehicle accident in which the seat belt was not worn. The client is exhibiting crepitus, decreased breath sounds on the left, complains of shortness of breath, and has a respiratory rate of 34/min. Which of the following assessment findings should concern the nurse the most?

• A. temperature of 102�F and a productive cough
• B. arterial blood gases (ABGs) with a PaO2 of 92 mmHg and PaCO2 of 40 mmHg
• C. trachea deviating to the right
• D. barrel-chested appearance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'trachea deviating to the right.' A mediastinal shift is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is a dangerous complication seen in trauma patients with symptoms like crepitus, decreased breath sounds, shortness of breath, and tachypnea. Assessing for acute traumatic injuries is crucial in this context. Choice A, a temperature of 102�F and a productive cough, is common in pneumonia cases and not as concerning as a mediastinal shift. Choice B, ABGs with a PaO2 of 92 mmHg and PaCO2 of 40 mmHg, shows values within normal limits and does not suggest a tension pneumothorax. Choice D, a barrel-chested appearance, is typical of COPD and not directly related to the acute traumatic injury described. A tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency where air cannot escape the pleural cavity, leading to lung collapse and a mediastinal shift to the unaffected side with a downward displacement of the diaphragm.

4. When treating anemia in clients with renal failure, erythropoietin should be given in conjunction with:

• A. iron, folic acid, and B12.
• B. an increase in protein in the diet.
• C. vitamins A and C.
• D. an increase in calcium in the diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythropoietin is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with renal failure. To effectively increase red blood cell production, adequate levels of iron, folic acid, and B12 are necessary. These nutrients play crucial roles in erythropoiesis. Choices B, an increase in protein in the diet, is not directly related to enhanced erythropoiesis and can potentially worsen uremia. Choices C and D, vitamins A and C, and an increase in calcium in the diet, are not directly involved in red blood cell production and are not essential in this context.

5. Why must the nurse be careful not to cut through or disrupt any tears, holes, bloodstains, or dirt present on the clothing of a client who has experienced trauma?

• A. The clothing is the property of another and must be treated with care.
• B. Such care facilitates repair and salvage of the clothing.
• C. The clothing of a trauma victim is potential evidence with legal implications.
• D. Such care decreases trauma to the family members receiving the clothing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Trauma in any client, living or dead, has potential legal and/or forensic implications. Clothing, patterns of stains, and debris are sources of potential evidence and must be preserved. Nurses must be aware of state and local regulations that require mandatory reporting of cases of suspected child and elder abuse, accidental death, and suicide. Each Emergency Department has written policies and procedures to assist nurses and other health care providers in making appropriate reports. Physical evidence is real, tangible, or latent matter that can be visualized, measured, or analyzed. Emergency Department nurses can be called on to collect evidence. Health care facilities have policies governing the collection of forensic evidence. The chain of evidence custody must be followed to ensure the integrity and credibility of the evidence. The chain of evidence custody is the pathway that evidence follows from the time it is collected until it has served its purpose in the legal investigation of an incident. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the crucial aspect of preserving potential evidence with legal implications that may be present on the clothing of a trauma victim.

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