Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assisting the RN with discharge instructions for a client with an implantable defibrillator. What discharge instruction is essential?

• A. "You can eat food prepared in a microwave."?
• B. "You should avoid moving the shoulder on the side of the defibrillator site for 6 weeks."?
• C. "You should use your cellphone on your right side."?
• D. "You will be able to fly on a commercial airliner with the defibrillator in place."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The essential discharge instruction for a client with an implantable defibrillator is to use any battery-operated machinery on the opposite side, including cellphones. This is to prevent interference with the device. Additionally, the client should monitor their pulse rate and report any dizziness or fainting, which could indicate issues with the defibrillator. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because clients with implantable defibrillators can eat food prepared in the microwave, move their shoulder on the affected side after the initial healing period, and are allowed to fly on commercial airliners with the defibrillator in place.

2. A contraindication for topical corticosteroid use in a client with atopic dermatitis (eczema) is:

• A. parasitic infection
• B. fungal infection
• C. spirochetal infection
• D. viral infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Topical corticosteroids are mainly used for their localized effects. When treating atopic dermatitis with a steroidal preparation, there is a risk of the site being vulnerable to invasion by organisms. Viruses like herpes simplex or varicella zoster pose a threat of disseminated infection. Therefore, viral infection is a contraindication for topical corticosteroid use in clients with atopic dermatitis. It is crucial to educate clients using topical corticosteroids to avoid crowds or people with infections and to promptly report any signs of infection. Choices A, B, and C (parasitic, fungal, and spirochetal infections) are not typically contraindications for topical corticosteroid use in the context of atopic dermatitis, as these agents do not pose the same risk of disseminated infection or systemic effects as viral infections.

3. To decrease a client's use of denial and increase the client's expression of feelings, what should the nurse do?

• A. Tell the client to stop using the defense mechanism of denial
• B. Positively reinforce each expression of feelings
• C. Instruct the client to express feelings
• D. Challenge the client each time denial is used

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate approach to decrease a client's use of denial and promote the expression of feelings is to positively reinforce each expression of feelings. This method helps the client feel supported and validated, encouraging them to continue expressing their emotions openly. Positively reinforcing the expression of feelings can help reduce the need for denial as the client learns that their emotions are acknowledged and accepted. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A of telling the client to stop using denial is too directive and may be ineffective. Instructing the client to express feelings (Choice C) lacks positive reinforcement, and challenging the client each time denial is used (Choice D) can create a confrontational environment that hinders therapeutic progress.

4. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?

• A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
• B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
• C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
• D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.

5. The primary organ for drug elimination is the:

• A. skin
• B. lung(s)
• C. kidney(s)
• D. liver

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the kidney(s) because most drugs are excreted in the urine, either as the parent compound or as drug metabolites. The skin is not the primary organ for drug elimination; only a few drugs are excreted in sweat. The lung(s) primarily excrete volatile gases with expiration, not drugs. While the liver metabolizes drugs, it is the kidney(s) that primarily eliminate drugs through urine, especially those with a molecular weight above 300.

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