the client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his tuberculosis which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

2024 Nclex Questions

1. The client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine. Rifampin can change the color of the urine and body fluid. Teaching the client about these changes is important as the client might think this is a complication. Answer A is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take rifampin with juice. Answer C is incorrect because rifampin should be taken at consistent times, not necessarily before going to bed. Answer D is incorrect as rifampin should be taken regularly as prescribed, not based on symptoms like night sweats.

2. What is the purpose of a contract between a nurse and a client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The purpose of a contract between a nurse and a client is to specify the participation and responsibilities of both parties. It outlines the expectations, contributions, and duties of each party involved in the professional relationship. This ensures clarity and mutual understanding. Choice B is incorrect as contracts do not indicate feeling tone but rather focus on the professional aspects. Choice C is incorrect because while contracts are legally binding, their primary purpose is not to prevent premature termination but to establish guidelines. Choice D is incorrect as contracts focus more on responsibilities and participation rather than specific roles.

3. The mother of a newborn child is very upset. The child has a cleft lip and palate. The type of crisis this mother is experiencing is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The mother is experiencing a situational crisis as the unexpected birth of a child with a cleft lip and palate has placed her in a challenging situation she did not anticipate. This type of crisis is triggered by specific events and circumstances. Choice A, reactive, implies responding to a stressor after it has occurred, which is not the case here. Choice B, maturational, refers to stress related to developmental stages, not to external events like the child's condition. Choice D, adventitious, involves crises resulting from events outside one's control, such as natural disasters, which do not apply in this scenario.

4. The nurse is participating in discharge teaching for the postpartal client. The nurse is aware that an effective means of managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sitz bath is an effective method for managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge. It helps reduce swelling and promotes healing in the perineal area. Ice packs (option D) are typically used immediately after delivery to provide pain relief. Promethazine (option A) and aspirin (option B) are not indicated for managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy. Promethazine is an antihistamine, and aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, both of which are not commonly used for this purpose.

5. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

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