Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assigning staff for the day. Which assignment should be given to the nursing assistant?

• A. Taking the vital signs of the 5-month-old with bronchiolitis
• B. Taking the vital signs of the 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy
• C. Administering medication to the 2-year-old with periorbital cellulitis
• D. Adjusting the traction of the 1-year-old with a fractured tibia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate assignment for a nursing assistant is to take the vital signs of a stable patient. A 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy is considered stable, and routine vital signs monitoring can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant. Clients with bronchiolitis, periorbital cellulitis, and a fractured tibia require more specialized care and assessment by a licensed nurse. Bronchiolitis involves an airway alteration, periorbital cellulitis indicates an infection, and a fractured tibia may raise concerns of abuse. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect for delegation to a nursing assistant.

2. When assessing a client in crisis, what should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Allowing the client to work through independent problem-solving.
• B. Completing an in-depth evaluation of stressors and responses to the situation.
• C. Focusing on immediate stress reduction.
• D. Recommending ongoing therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is in crisis, the nurse's priority is to focus on immediate stress reduction. Crisis intervention aims to stabilize the client in the present moment by addressing the most pressing issues. Allowing the client to work through independent problem-solving (Choice A) may not be appropriate during a crisis as they might need immediate support. Completing an in-depth evaluation of stressors (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority during a crisis. Recommending ongoing therapy (Choice D) may be considered later, but the immediate focus should be on reducing the client's stress and stabilizing the situation.

3. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

4. A family member of a client with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia asks about the prognosis. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that schizophrenia:

• A. affects both genders equally.
• B. is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.
• C. is usually diagnosed in early adulthood.
• D. does not have a clear protective hormone effect delaying diagnosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.' While choices A, C, and D contain some truths about schizophrenia, they do not directly address the prognosis aspect of the question. Schizophrenia can affect both men and women equally, is typically diagnosed in early adulthood, and does not have a known protective hormone effect that delays diagnosis. Choice B accurately reflects the chronic and fluctuating nature of the disease, which is essential for understanding its long-term course.

5. A client goes to the mental health center for difficulty concentrating, insomnia, and nightmares. The client reports being raped as a child. The nurse should assess the client for further signs of:

• A. generalized anxiety disorder.
• B. schizophrenia.
• C. post-traumatic stress disorder.
• D. bipolar disorder.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Given the history of childhood sexual abuse and the presenting symptoms of difficulty concentrating, insomnia, and nightmares, the nurse should assess the client for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Childhood sexual abuse is strongly associated with adult-onset depression and an increased risk for PTSD. Individuals with PTSD may exhibit re-experiencing symptoms such as flashbacks, nightmares, and heightened reactions to trauma triggers. They may also display emotional numbing, avoidance behaviors, and increased arousal symptoms like difficulty sleeping and hypervigilance. Generalized anxiety disorder (Choice A) is characterized by excessive worry and anxiety about various events or activities, not necessarily tied to a specific trauma. Schizophrenia (Choice B) is a severe mental disorder characterized by distortions in thinking, perception, emotions, and behavior, unrelated to the traumatic event described. Bipolar disorder (Choice D) involves mood swings between depressive and manic episodes, and its symptoms differ from those typically seen in PTSD.

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