Nursing Elites

1. People who live in poverty are most likely to obtain health care from:

• A. their primary care physician (family doctor)
• B. a neighborhood clinic
• C. specialists
• D. Emergency Departments or urgent care centers

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Individuals living in poverty often face barriers to accessing regular healthcare services, leading them to utilize Emergency Departments or urgent care centers as their primary source of healthcare. These facilities provide immediate care without the need for appointments or insurance, making them more accessible to those in poverty. While primary care physicians and neighborhood clinics are essential for preventive care, individuals in poverty may have difficulty accessing these services due to financial constraints or lack of insurance. Specialists typically require referrals and may not be easily accessible to individuals without stable healthcare coverage. Therefore, Emergency Departments or urgent care centers are the most likely healthcare option for people living in poverty.

2. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?

• A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
• B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
• C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
• D. The test results are normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.

3. A client describes her cervical mucus as clear, thin, and elastic. Upon examination, the nurse demonstrates that the cervical mucus can be stretched 8-10 cm. The nurse correctly documents the finding as:

• A. increased ferning capacity.
• B. lack of ferning.
• C. spinnbarkheit.
• D. inhospitable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should document the finding as 'spinnbarkheit.' Spinnbarkheit is the term used to describe the clear, thin, and elastic cervical mucus that can be stretched 8-10 cm, indicating ovulation. It helps couples determine the most fertile period for conception. Ferning capacity or crystallization increases as ovulation approaches, but it requires microscopic examination to be confirmed. Lack of ferning cannot be determined without such examination. 'Inhospitable' cervical mucus refers to patterns that prohibit sperm motility, caused by various factors like hormone levels or infection. These conditions cannot be assessed based solely on the description provided in the question.

4. The nurse is assessing an 18-month-old. Which of these statements made by the parent or caregiver would require follow-up?

• A. I'm worried that my child is not using two-word phrases yet.
• B. My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.
• C. My child seems to have developed separation anxiety when I leave.
• D. I'm letting my child use a spoon to eat.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.' By 18 months of age, children should have taken their first steps and stand well. If a child hasn't made progress by this age, a physical therapy evaluation may be necessary. It is normal for an 18-month-old to start using a spoon to eat. However, the use of two-word phrases is not typically expected until 2 years of age. Separation anxiety is a common developmental phase that typically occurs between 6 and 18 months, so it does not require immediate follow-up. Therefore, the statement about the child not being stable when standing raises a red flag and necessitates further evaluation.

5. A client with Kawasaki disease has bilateral congestion of the conjunctivae, dry cracked lips, a strawberry tongue, and edema of the hands and feet followed by desquamation of fingers and toes. Which of the following nursing measures is most appropriate to meet the expected outcome of positive body image?

• A. administering immune globulin intravenously
• B. assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours
• C. explaining progression of the disease to the client and their family
• D. assessing heart sounds and rhythm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Explaining the progression of the disease to the client and their family is the most appropriate nursing measure to promote a positive body image. By educating them about when symptoms are expected to improve and resolve, they can understand that there will be no permanent disruption in physical appearance that could negatively impact body image. While administering immune globulin intravenously may be part of the treatment for Kawasaki disease, it does not directly address body image concerns. Assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours is important for monitoring the disease but does not directly impact body image. Assessing heart sounds and rhythm is crucial for monitoring cardiac effects of Kawasaki disease but is not directly related to promoting a positive body image.

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