Nursing Elites

1. People who live in poverty are most likely to obtain health care from:

• A. their primary care physician (family doctor)
• B. a neighborhood clinic
• C. specialists
• D. Emergency Departments or urgent care centers

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Individuals living in poverty often face barriers to accessing regular healthcare services, leading them to utilize Emergency Departments or urgent care centers as their primary source of healthcare. These facilities provide immediate care without the need for appointments or insurance, making them more accessible to those in poverty. While primary care physicians and neighborhood clinics are essential for preventive care, individuals in poverty may have difficulty accessing these services due to financial constraints or lack of insurance. Specialists typically require referrals and may not be easily accessible to individuals without stable healthcare coverage. Therefore, Emergency Departments or urgent care centers are the most likely healthcare option for people living in poverty.

2. A clinic nurse about to meet a new client plans to gather subjective data regarding the client's health history. Which action does the nurse take to help ensure the success of the interview?

• A. Ensuring that the room is private
• B. Having the client sit across from the nurse without a desk or table between them
• C. Maintaining a distance of 4 to 5 feet between the nurse and client
• D. Adjusting the room lighting to ensure it is comfortable and conducive for the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The physical environment of an interview room should provide optimal conditions to encourage a smooth interview and make the client feel comfortable. The nurse ensures that privacy is maintained to avoid interruptions during the interview. This helps create a safe space for the client to share sensitive information. Having the client sit across from the nurse without a desk or table between them is also important to promote open communication and build rapport. Maintaining a distance of 4 to 5 feet from the client respects their personal space and helps prevent the client from feeling overwhelmed. While adjusting the room lighting is beneficial for creating a comfortable atmosphere, ensuring privacy is crucial for establishing trust and confidentiality. Therefore, ensuring that the room is private is crucial for the success of the interview, making choice A the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the importance of privacy in creating a conducive environment for the interview.

3. A nurse is reviewing the findings of a physical examination documented in a client's record. Which piece of information does the nurse recognize as objective data?

• A. The client is allergic to strawberries
• B. The last menstrual period was 30 days ago
• C. The client takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches
• D. A 1-2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Objective data in a physical examination are findings that the healthcare provider observes or measures directly. In this case, a 1 � 2-inch scar present on the lower right portion of the abdomen is a physical observation. Subjective data are based on what the client reports, such as allergies (Choice A), the date of the last menstrual period (Choice B), and self-reported medication use for headaches (Choice C). While these pieces of information are important for assessing the client's health, they are considered subjective data because they rely on the client's self-report rather than direct observation by the healthcare provider.

4. A multigravida pregnant woman asks the nurse when she will start to feel fetal movements. Around which week of gestation does the nurse tell the mother that fetal movements are first noticed?

• A. 16 weeks
• B. 6 weeks
• C. 8 weeks
• D. 12 weeks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fetal movements (quickening) are first noticed by multigravida pregnant women at 16 to 20 weeks of gestation and gradually increase in frequency and strength. This is when the mother typically begins to feel the baby's movements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fetal movements are not felt as early as 6, 8, or 12 weeks of gestation. At 6 weeks, the embryo's movements are not yet strong enough to be felt by the mother. By 8 weeks, the movements are still too subtle to be perceived. At 12 weeks, although fetal movements start, they are usually not strong enough to be felt by the mother.

5. The mother of an adolescent calls the clinic nurse and reports that her daughter wants to have her navel pierced. The mother asks the nurse about the dangers associated with body piercing. The nurse provides which information to the mother?

• A. Infection always occurs when body piercing is done
• B. Hepatitis B is a concern with body piercing
• C. Body piercing is generally harmless as long as it is performed under sterile conditions
• D. It is important to discourage body piercing because of the risk of contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Generally, body piercing is harmless if the procedure is performed under sterile conditions by a qualified person. Some complications that may occur include bleeding, infection, keloid formation, and the development of allergies to metal. It is essential to clean the area at least twice a day (more often for a tongue piercing) to prevent infection. HIV and hepatitis B infections are not typically associated with body piercing; however, they are a possibility with tattooing. Choice A is incorrect because infection does not always occur when body piercing is done. Choice B is not the best answer as hepatitis B is not commonly associated with body piercing. Choice D is incorrect because the risk of contracting HIV is not a significant concern with body piercing if performed under sterile conditions.

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