NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. The LPN participates in a home visit for a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin for 3 years. The client states that for the past 3 months, they have been trying a vegan diet and experiencing fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. What is a likely cause of the new symptoms?
- A. vitamin B12 deficiency
- B. chronic hypoglycemia
- C. vitamin D deficiency
- D. increased tolerance to Metformin
Correct answer: vitamin B12 deficiency
Rationale: The correct answer is vitamin B12 deficiency. Long-term use of Metformin can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency, and a vegan diet is low in vitamin B12. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include anemia, fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. Chronic hypoglycemia is unlikely in a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin as it typically causes hyperglycemia. Vitamin D deficiency usually presents with symptoms related to bones and muscles, not confusion and mood changes. Increased tolerance to Metformin does not explain the client's new symptoms, which are more indicative of a nutritional deficiency like vitamin B12.
2. What vitamin is important in preventing peripheral neuritis in a client with alcohol abuse?
- A. Vitamin D
- B. Fat-soluble vitamins
- C. B vitamins
- D. Potassium
Correct answer: Fat-soluble vitamins
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fat-soluble vitamins.' Vitamin B, not Vitamin D, is crucial in preventing peripheral neuritis in individuals with alcohol abuse. Vitamin B deficiency, particularly B1 (thiamine), is commonly associated with peripheral neuritis in alcoholics. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Vitamin D is not directly related to peripheral neuritis, and potassium deficiency typically presents with different symptoms.
3. A nurse in a long-term care center notes that an employee is constantly calling in sick. Which action should the nurse take initially to handle this problem?
- A. Documenting the employee's absences in the personnel file
- B. Discussing the situation with the employee and reminding them of the agency's employment standards
- C. Reporting the employee to administration
- D. Issuing a written warning to the employee
Correct answer: B: Discussing the situation with the employee and reminding them of the agency's employment standards
Rationale: When an employee demonstrates excessive absenteeism, the initial action a nurse should take is to discuss the situation with the employee and remind them of the agency's employment standards. It is important to communicate openly with the employee to understand the reasons for their frequent absences and remind them of the expectations regarding attendance. This approach allows for a constructive dialogue and provides the employee with an opportunity to rectify their behavior. Documenting the employee's absences in the personnel file may be necessary if the issue persists despite the discussion. Reporting the employee to administration should be considered only if the employee fails to improve after the initial discussion. Issuing a written warning should be a subsequent step if the employee continues to violate the attendance policies even after reminders and discussions.
4. When a nurse-midwife, performing a vaginal examination of a client who suspects that she is pregnant, documents the presence of the Chadwick sign, what does this indicate?
- A. That the cervix appears violet
- B. That cervical softening is present
- C. A positive sign of pregnancy
- D. A thinning of the cervix
Correct answer: That the cervix appears violet
Rationale: The correct interpretation of the Chadwick sign is that the cervix appears violet in color. This sign is a probable sign of pregnancy, characterized by the violet coloration of the cervix due to increased vascularity of the pelvic organs. It is not a definitive positive sign of pregnancy but rather a probable one. Choices B and D are incorrect as cervical softening is known as the Goodell sign, and thinning of the cervix is referred to as the Hegar sign. These signs are also probable signs of pregnancy, but they do not specifically indicate the Chadwick sign.
5. The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?
- A. Muscle tetany
- B. Syncope
- C. Numbness
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anxiety.' Anxiety is not a typical sign of right-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure usually presents with symptoms such as muscle tetany, syncope, and numbness. Muscle tetany can occur due to electrolyte imbalances seen in heart failure. Syncope can result from decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased perfusion to the brain. Numbness can occur due to poor circulation. While anxiety can be present in patients with various medical conditions, it is more commonly associated with respiratory acidosis or other psychological factors rather than right-sided heart failure.
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