Nursing Elites

1. The LPN participates in a home visit for a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin for 3 years. The client states that for the past 3 months, they have been trying a vegan diet and experiencing fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. What is a likely cause of the new symptoms?

• A. vitamin B12 deficiency
• B. chronic hypoglycemia
• C. vitamin D deficiency
• D. increased tolerance to Metformin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is vitamin B12 deficiency. Long-term use of Metformin can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency, and a vegan diet is low in vitamin B12. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include anemia, fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. Chronic hypoglycemia is unlikely in a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin as it typically causes hyperglycemia. Vitamin D deficiency usually presents with symptoms related to bones and muscles, not confusion and mood changes. Increased tolerance to Metformin does not explain the client's new symptoms, which are more indicative of a nutritional deficiency like vitamin B12.

2. The nurse has a client who is being transferred to another floor right around change of shift. Which of the following actions is least appropriate?

• A. Inform the staff on the other floor of any unresolved issues with the client.
• B. Ask the charge nurse if overtime would be permitted to complete the client's transfer to the other floor.
• C. Ask the new nurse to take care of the transfer since the client's medical record has all of the information, and a report should not be needed.
• D. Complete the transfer paperwork before the client is transferred.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The least appropriate action in this scenario is to ask the new nurse to take care of the transfer without providing a full handoff of care. It is crucial to ensure a safe handoff during the transfer to maintain continuity of care and patient safety. Informing the staff on the other floor of any unresolved issues with the client (Choice A) is important for the client's well-being as it helps in providing comprehensive care. Asking the charge nurse about overtime (Choice B) demonstrates consideration for completing the task effectively, but it should not take precedence over ensuring a proper handoff. Completing the transfer paperwork before the client is transferred (Choice D) is necessary to ensure all documentation is in order, but it should be done in conjunction with providing a thorough handoff of care to the new nurse.

3. A nurse is trying to motivate a client toward more effective management of a therapeutic regimen. Which of the following actions by the nurse is most likely to be effective in increasing the client's motivation?

• A. determining if the client has any family or friends living nearby
• B. developing a concise discharge plan and reviewing it with the client
• C. teaching the client about the disorder at the client's level of understanding
• D. making a referral to an area agency for client follow-up

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To effectively motivate the client, it is important to educate them about the disorder at their level of understanding. This helps the client comprehend the importance of the therapeutic regimen and empowers them to actively participate in their treatment. Choice A, determining if the client has any family or friends living nearby, may provide social support but is less likely to directly impact the client's motivation compared to educating them about their condition. Developing a concise discharge plan, as in choice B, is crucial for continuity of care but may not directly enhance the client's motivation as effectively as providing education tailored to their level of understanding. Making a referral for follow-up, as in choice D, is important for ongoing care but may not have the same immediate impact on the client's motivation as educating them about their condition.

4. When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, which information should a nurse recognize as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy?

• A. family history of stroke
• B. ovaries removed before age 45
• C. frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats
• D. unexplained vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When considering hormone replacement therapy for a menopausal woman, unexplained vaginal bleeding should be recognized as a contraindication. This is because it could be indicative of a serious underlying condition that needs investigation before initiating hormone therapy. A family history of stroke, by itself, is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy, unless the woman herself has a history of stroke or blood-clotting events. Ovaries removed before age 45 may actually increase the likelihood of needing hormone replacement therapy due to early menopause. Frequent hot flashes and night sweats, on the other hand, are symptoms that can be relieved by hormone replacement therapy, making them a potential indication rather than a contraindication.

5. A patient reports, "I tore 3 of my 4 Rotator cuff muscles in the past."? Which of the following muscles cannot be considered as possibly being torn?

• A. Teres minor
• B. Teres major
• C. Supraspinatus
• D. Infraspinatus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Teres major. The Rotator Cuff consists of Teres Minor, Infraspinatus, Supraspinatus, and Subscapularis muscles, not Teres major. Teres major is not part of the rotator cuff, so it cannot be considered as possibly being torn. The other choices, Teres minor, Supraspinatus, and Infraspinatus, are all part of the Rotator Cuff and could potentially be torn in this patient's case.

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