NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. The LPN participates in a home visit for a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin for 3 years. The client states that for the past 3 months, they have been trying a vegan diet and experiencing fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. What is a likely cause of the new symptoms?
- A. vitamin B12 deficiency
- B. chronic hypoglycemia
- C. vitamin D deficiency
- D. increased tolerance to Metformin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is vitamin B12 deficiency. Long-term use of Metformin can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency, and a vegan diet is low in vitamin B12. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include anemia, fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. Chronic hypoglycemia is unlikely in a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin as it typically causes hyperglycemia. Vitamin D deficiency usually presents with symptoms related to bones and muscles, not confusion and mood changes. Increased tolerance to Metformin does not explain the client's new symptoms, which are more indicative of a nutritional deficiency like vitamin B12.
2. What is an appropriate nursing goal for a client at risk for nutritional problems?
- A. provide oxygen
- B. promote healthy nutritional practices
- C. treat complications of malnutrition
- D. increase weight
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Promoting healthy nutritional practices is an appropriate nursing goal for a client at risk for nutritional problems as it focuses on preventive measures to address the risk of nutritional issues. Choice A is incorrect because providing oxygen is not related to addressing nutritional problems. Choice C is incorrect as it involves treating the consequences rather than preventing nutritional problems. Choice D is incorrect because increasing weight is only suitable if the client is underweight, not as a general preventive measure.
3. Which of the following is most likely to impact the body image of an infant newly diagnosed with Hemophilia?
- A. immobility
- B. altered growth and development
- C. hemarthrosis
- D. altered family processes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Altered Family Processes is a significant factor that can impact the body image of an infant newly diagnosed with Hemophilia. Infants are highly sensitive to the reactions of their caregivers, and a new diagnosis like Hemophilia can introduce stress and uncertainties into the family dynamics. This can affect the infant's sense of security, trust development, and how they perceive themselves. Immobility, while a potential long-term effect of Hemophilia, is not the immediate impact on body image for a newly diagnosed infant. Altered growth and development would take time to manifest and would not be an immediate concern after a recent diagnosis. Hemarthrosis, although a characteristic symptom of Hemophilia, is a physical manifestation rather than a direct influence on body image perception in a newly diagnosed infant.
4. As part of a routine health screening, the nurse notes the play of a 2-year-old child. Which of the following is an example of age-appropriate play at this age?
- A. builds towers with several blocks
- B. tries to color within the lines
- C. says "Mine!"? when playing with toys
- D. tries to jump rope
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a 2-year-old child, saying 'Mine!' when playing with toys is an example of age-appropriate play. Toddlers at this age are possessive and asserting their sense of ownership. Building towers with blocks and trying to color within the lines involve more advanced motor skills and cognitive abilities that are typically not fully developed in a 2-year-old. Jumping rope requires coordination and balance beyond what a 2-year-old can usually achieve. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are not considered age-appropriate plays for a 2-year-old child.
5. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's health care record notes documentation that the client has Heberden nodes of the distal interphalangeal joints. Which disorder does the healthcare professional determine that the client has?
- A. Scoliosis
- B. Osteoarthritis
- C. Rotator cuff lesions
- D. Carpal tunnel syndrome
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis is characterized by hard, nontender nodules of 2 to 3 mm or larger. These osteophytes (bony overgrowths) of the distal interphalangeal joints are called Heberden nodes. In this disorder, when these nodes occur on the proximal interphalangeal joints, they are called Bouchard nodes. Heberden nodes are not associated with scoliosis, rotator cuff lesions, or carpal tunnel syndrome. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
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