Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles.
• B. When refrigerating formula, discard partially used bottles after 24 hours.
• C. When using formula concentrate, mix one part water and one part concentrate.
• D. When using powdered formula, mix two parts water and one part powder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles. It is essential for parents to be cautious when warming bottles in a microwave oven to prevent superheating of the milk. Choosing the defrost setting and checking the formula temperature before giving it to the baby helps avoid burns. Discarding partially used bottles after 24 hours when refrigerating formula is crucial as it reduces the risk of harmful bacterial growth. Mixing formula concentrate with water in a 1:1 ratio of one part concentrate to one part water ensures proper dilution of the formula. On the other hand, powdered formula should be mixed following the package instructions, typically using two parts water to one part powder. This accurate mixing ratio provides the necessary balance of nutrients for the baby. Adding fresh formula to partially used bottles can introduce pathogens that may harm the infant, underscoring the importance of discarding partially used bottles and preparing formula correctly. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the safe and proper ways to feed a newborn effectively.

2. A Mexican American client with epilepsy is being seen at the clinic for an initial examination. The nurse understands which primary purpose of including cultural information in the health assessment?

• A. Confirm the medical diagnosis.
• B. Make accurate nursing diagnoses.
• C. Identify any hereditary traits related to the epilepsy.
• D. Determine what the client believes has caused the epilepsy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary purpose for including cultural information in the health assessment is to determine what the client believes has caused the illness. In Mexican American culture, epilepsy is seen as a reflection of physical imbalance. While gathering data on hereditary traits and formulating nursing diagnoses are important, they are not the primary reasons for including cultural information in the health assessment. It is crucial to understand the client's beliefs as they may impact their perceptions of health, treatment adherence, and overall care. It is not the nurse's role to confirm a medical diagnosis, as this is the responsibility of the healthcare provider.

3. What is the intent of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) of 1990?

• A. Enhance personal control over healthcare decisions.
• B. Encourage medical treatment decision making prior to need.
• C. Establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney.
• D. Emphasize client education.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The purpose of the PSDA is to encourage medical treatment decision-making before it becomes necessary. This legislation aims to empower individuals to make their own healthcare choices in advance. Choice A is incorrect because while enhancing personal control over healthcare decisions is important, the primary goal of the PSDA is to facilitate medical decision-making before the need arises. Choice C is incorrect as the PSDA does not establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney; instead, it encourages individuals to create their own advance directives according to state-specific regulations. Choice D is incorrect because while client education is valuable, the main focus of the PSDA is on empowering individuals to plan for their future healthcare needs.

4. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

5. A client describes her cervical mucus as clear, thin, and elastic. Upon examination, the nurse demonstrates that the cervical mucus can be stretched 8-10 cm. The nurse correctly documents the finding as:

• A. increased ferning capacity.
• B. lack of ferning.
• C. spinnbarkheit.
• D. inhospitable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should document the finding as 'spinnbarkheit.' Spinnbarkheit is the term used to describe the clear, thin, and elastic cervical mucus that can be stretched 8-10 cm, indicating ovulation. It helps couples determine the most fertile period for conception. Ferning capacity or crystallization increases as ovulation approaches, but it requires microscopic examination to be confirmed. Lack of ferning cannot be determined without such examination. 'Inhospitable' cervical mucus refers to patterns that prohibit sperm motility, caused by various factors like hormone levels or infection. These conditions cannot be assessed based solely on the description provided in the question.

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