the lpn is about to give 100 mg lopressor metoprolol to a client before administering the drug he takes the patients vitals which are as follows pulse
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions

1. The LPN is about to give 100 mg Lopressor (metoprolol) to a client. Before administering the drug, they take the patient's vitals, which are as follows: Pulse: 58 Blood Pressure: 90/62 Respirations: 18/minute What action should the LPN take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lopressor is given to treat hypertension, and a pulse of 58 and a blood pressure of 90/62 are considered low. To prevent the client from bottoming out, the drug should be held, and the findings reported to the RN, who should consult with the attending physician. LPNs should never adjust client dosing, as that is outside of their scope of practice. It is crucial to follow facility guidelines, which often recommend holding blood pressure medication at 60 bpm and a systolic pressure of 90 or less. By holding the drug and notifying the RN, the LPN ensures the client's safety and allows for appropriate assessment and decision-making by the healthcare team. Giving half the dose or double the dose without proper authorization can lead to serious complications and is considered unsafe practice.

2. The teaching plan for a postpartum client who is about to be discharged should include which of the following instructions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the postpartum client to call the physician if their vaginal discharge becomes bright red. The vaginal discharge after birth is called lochia, and a return to red or containing clots could indicate impending hemorrhage or infection, necessitating notification of the physician. Choice A is incorrect because although some tenderness may be expected, redness and fatigue are clinical manifestations of mastitis, not normal postpartum changes. Choice B is also incorrect as increased frequency of urination after vaginal delivery could indicate a urinary tract infection, not a normal postpartum change. Choice C is incorrect because running a low-grade temperature for a few days is not expected postpartum; an elevated temperature above 100�F should be reported to the physician as it could indicate infection.

3. As part of a routine health screening, the nurse notes the play of a 2-year-old child. Which of the following is an example of age-appropriate play at this age?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a 2-year-old child, saying 'Mine!' when playing with toys is an example of age-appropriate play. Toddlers at this age are possessive and asserting their sense of ownership. Building towers with blocks and trying to color within the lines involve more advanced motor skills and cognitive abilities that are typically not fully developed in a 2-year-old. Jumping rope requires coordination and balance beyond what a 2-year-old can usually achieve. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are not considered age-appropriate plays for a 2-year-old child.

4. Nurses caring for clients who have cancer and are taking opioids need to assess for all of the following except:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'addiction.' When caring for clients with cancer who are taking opioids, nurses need to assess for tolerance, constipation, and sedation as these are common side effects of opioid use. Addiction is not a primary concern when managing pain in terminally ill clients, as the goal is effective pain management rather than addiction prevention. Tolerance refers to the body's adaptation to the opioid over time, requiring higher doses for the same effect. Constipation and sedation are common side effects of opioids that nurses need to monitor and manage. Addiction is not a major concern in this population as the focus is on providing comfort and pain relief.

5. A client who is experiencing infertility says to the nurse, 'I feel I will be incomplete as a man/woman if I cannot have a child.' Which of the following nursing diagnoses is likely to be appropriate for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Body Image Disturbance.' The client's statement reflects concerns about self-identity and completeness related to infertility, indicating a disturbance in body image perception. 'Risk for Self-Harm' is not the best choice as there is no indication of immediate self-harm. 'Ineffective Role Performance' is less appropriate since the statement does not directly relate to a disruption in the parent's role. 'Powerlessness' could be considered if the client expressed feelings of powerlessness specifically related to the infertility issue.

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