NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. The LPN is about to give 100 mg Lopressor (metoprolol) to a client. Before administering the drug, they take the patient's vitals, which are as follows: Pulse: 58 Blood Pressure: 90/62 Respirations: 18/minute What action should the LPN take?
- A. Give the client half the prescribed dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
- B. Give the client double the dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
- C. Administer the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.
- D. Hold the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Lopressor is given to treat hypertension, and a pulse of 58 and a blood pressure of 90/62 are considered low. To prevent the client from bottoming out, the drug should be held, and the findings reported to the RN, who should consult with the attending physician. LPNs should never adjust client dosing, as that is outside of their scope of practice. It is crucial to follow facility guidelines, which often recommend holding blood pressure medication at 60 bpm and a systolic pressure of 90 or less. By holding the drug and notifying the RN, the LPN ensures the client's safety and allows for appropriate assessment and decision-making by the healthcare team. Giving half the dose or double the dose without proper authorization can lead to serious complications and is considered unsafe practice.
2. A nurse is preparing to assess the dorsalis pedis pulse. The nurse palpates this pulse by placing the fingertips in which location?
- A. Behind the knee
- B. Lateral to the extensor tendon of the big toe
- C. In the groove between the malleolus and the Achilles tendon
- D. Below the inguinal ligament, halfway between the pubis and the anterior superior iliac spines
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct location to palpate the dorsalis pedis pulse is lateral to and parallel with the extensor tendon of the big toe. Choices A, C, and D describe the locations for other pulses - popliteal, posterior tibial, and femoral artery respectively. The popliteal pulse is found behind the knee, the posterior tibial pulse is located in the groove between the malleolus and the Achilles tendon, and the femoral artery is situated below the inguinal ligament, halfway between the pubis and the anterior superior iliac spines.
3. A client complains that her skin is redder than normal. The nurse notes the client's skin, documents hyperemia, and explains to the client that this condition is caused by which factor?
- A. Constriction of the underlying blood vessels
- B. An increased amount of bilirubin in the blood
- C. Increased perfusion of the surrounding tissues
- D. Excess blood in the dilated superficial capillaries
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hyperemia is an excess of blood in a part of the body. The skin over a hyperemic area usually becomes reddened or warm. The condition is caused by increased blood flow, local relaxation of arterioles, or obstruction of the outflow of blood from an area. Choice A is incorrect because constriction of blood vessels would lead to decreased blood flow, not excess blood. Choice B is incorrect as an increased amount of bilirubin in the blood is related to jaundice, not hyperemia. Choice C is incorrect because increased perfusion of the surrounding tissues would cause redness, not hyperemia.
4. The parents of a 2-year-old child ask the nurse how they can teach their child to stop taking toys away from other children. Which of the following statements by the nurse offers the parents the best explanation of their child's behavior?
- A. "Your child is egocentric. Egocentricity is normal for 2-year-old children. He believes other children want him to have their toys."?
- B. "Your child is showing negativity. He doesn't want other children to have the toys he wants."?
- C. "Your child is demonstrating magical thinking. He believes he can make the other children want him to play with their toys."?
- D. "Your child is engaging in domestic imitation. He is doing what he has seen other children do."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Two-year-old children are very egocentric, believing everything revolves around them. They think other children want them to have their toys, which explains why they may take toys from others. This behavior is typical for children at this age as they lack the ability to see things from another's perspective. Option B is incorrect because negativity in children this age is more related to refusal of requests rather than taking toys. Magical thinking, as described in option C, is usually seen in preschool-age children and involves unrealistic beliefs. Option D is incorrect as domestic imitation refers to imitating adult household tasks, not other children's behavior.
5. A teenage client is admitted to the hospital because of acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the following organs?
- A. lungs
- B. liver
- C. kidneys
- D. adrenal glands
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acetaminophen is extensively metabolized in the liver. An overdose of acetaminophen can lead to severe liver damage and even liver failure, which can be life-threatening. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although prolonged use of acetaminophen may lead to an increased risk of renal dysfunction, a single overdose does not typically cause life-threatening abnormalities in the lungs, kidneys, or adrenal glands.
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