Nursing Elites

1. The LPN is about to give 100 mg Lopressor (metoprolol) to a client. Before administering the drug, they take the patient's vitals, which are as follows: Pulse: 58 Blood Pressure: 90/62 Respirations: 18/minute What action should the LPN take?

• A. Give the client half the prescribed dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• B. Give the client double the dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• C. Administer the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• D. Hold the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lopressor is given to treat hypertension, and a pulse of 58 and a blood pressure of 90/62 are considered low. To prevent the client from bottoming out, the drug should be held, and the findings reported to the RN, who should consult with the attending physician. LPNs should never adjust client dosing, as that is outside of their scope of practice. It is crucial to follow facility guidelines, which often recommend holding blood pressure medication at 60 bpm and a systolic pressure of 90 or less. By holding the drug and notifying the RN, the LPN ensures the client's safety and allows for appropriate assessment and decision-making by the healthcare team. Giving half the dose or double the dose without proper authorization can lead to serious complications and is considered unsafe practice.

2. A client is taking phenelzine (Nardil), and their spouse would like to bring lunch from home. Which of the following is most appropriate for the client to eat?

• A. a banana
• B. grapefruit
• C. a salami sandwich
• D. avocado slices

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is grapefruit. Clients taking MAO Inhibitors like phenelzine (Nardil) should avoid foods rich in tyramine to prevent hypertensive crisis. Grapefruit is a suitable choice as it is not high in tyramine. Bananas, avocados, and salami are foods that should be avoided due to their tyramine content, which can interact adversely with MAO Inhibitors. Therefore, choosing grapefruit is the safest option for the client.

3. The LPN is taking care of a 176-pound client who has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. The primary healthcare provider has written an order for Lantus� (insulin glargine injection) 100 units/mL, using weight-based dosing of 0.2 units/kg per day. The LPN should prepare ____ units for administration.

• A. 12
• B. 35
• C. 16
• D. 9

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dosage, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms. As 1 kg = 2.2 pounds, 176 pounds � 2.2 = 80 kg. The client should receive 0.2 units for every kilogram, which equals 16 units. Therefore, the total amount to prepare is 16 units x 100 units/mL = 1600 units. Considering the medication concentration of 100 units/mL, 1600 units � 100 units/mL = 16 mL. However, since the question asks for the number of units, the final answer is 16 units x 2 injections = 32 units. Therefore, the LPN should prepare 32 units for administration.

4. A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
• C. Recheck the score in 5 minutes
• D. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.

5. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?

• A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
• B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
• C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
• D. The test results are normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.

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