Nursing Elites

1. The licensed practical nurse is observing a graduate nurse as she assesses the central venous pressure. Which observation would indicate that the graduate needs further teaching?

• A. The graduate places the client in a supine position to read the manometer.
• B. The graduate turns the stop-cock to the off position from the IV fluid to the client.
• C. The graduate instructs the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver during the CVP reading.
• D. The graduate notes the level at the top of the meniscus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client should breathe normally during a central venous pressure monitor reading. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is correct if the client can tolerate it. Turning the stop-cock off (Choice B) and noting the level at the top of the meniscus (Choice D) are also correct actions during CVP monitoring. Instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is incorrect as it can artificially alter the CVP reading, indicating a need for further teaching.

2. Which of the following describes the stages of domestic violence in an intimate relationship?

• A. happiness, crisis, angry outburst, intervention
• B. honeymoon period, escalation of stress, outburst, reconciliation
• C. acting out and making up
• D. peace and calm, angry outburst, peace and calm, denial

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'honeymoon period, escalation of stress, outburst, reconciliation.' A pattern of behavior known as the cycle of abuse involves these stages. It starts with a honeymoon phase, followed by a buildup of stress, an outburst which may involve violence, and then reconciliation. This cycle is commonly observed in domestic violence situations. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately represent the stages of domestic violence in intimate relationships. Choice A mixes positive and negative elements, while choice C simplifies the complex dynamics of domestic violence. Choice D repeats 'peace and calm' inappropriately and includes 'denial,' which is not typically a stage in the cycle of abuse.

3. A client receiving preoperative instructions asks questions repeatedly about when to stop eating the night before the procedure. The nurse tries to refocus the client. The nurse notes that the client is frequently startled by noises in the hall. Assessment reveals rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, and elevated blood pressure. The client admits to feeling nervous and having trouble sleeping. Based on the assessment, the nurse documents that the client has:

• A. mild anxiety.
• B. moderate anxiety.
• C. severe anxiety.
• D. a panic attack.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'severe anxiety.' In severe anxiety, a person focuses on small or scattered details and is unable to solve problems. The client's symptoms of rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, feeling nervous, and having trouble sleeping indicate severe anxiety. Mild anxiety enhances the ability to learn and solve problems, while moderate anxiety narrows the perceptual field but allows the client to notice things brought to their attention. During a panic attack, a person is disorganized, hyperactive, or unable to speak or act, which is not the case in this scenario.

4. The client is visiting a home health client with osteoporosis. The client has a new prescription for alendronate (Fosamax). Which instruction should be given to the client?

• A. Rest in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes
• B. Avoid rapid movements after taking the medication
• C. Take the medication with water only
• D. Allow at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and taking other medications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax), instructing them to avoid rapid movements after taking the medication is crucial to prevent esophageal irritation. Resting in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes (choice A) is not necessary and can increase the risk of side effects. While taking the medication with water only (choice C) is generally recommended, the key instruction to prevent esophageal irritation is to avoid rapid movements. Allowing at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and other medications (choice D) is not specifically related to the administration of alendronate and is not the primary concern when giving instructions to the client.

5. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

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