Nursing Elites

1. The licensed practical nurse is observing a graduate nurse as she assesses the central venous pressure. Which observation would indicate that the graduate needs further teaching?

• A. The graduate places the client in a supine position to read the manometer.
• B. The graduate turns the stop-cock to the off position from the IV fluid to the client.
• C. The graduate instructs the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver during the CVP reading.
• D. The graduate notes the level at the top of the meniscus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client should breathe normally during a central venous pressure monitor reading. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is correct if the client can tolerate it. Turning the stop-cock off (Choice B) and noting the level at the top of the meniscus (Choice D) are also correct actions during CVP monitoring. Instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is incorrect as it can artificially alter the CVP reading, indicating a need for further teaching.

2. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

• A. Peaked P wave
• B. Elevated ST segment
• C. Inverted T wave
• D. Prolonged QT interval

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

3. When helping a client gain insight into anxiety, the nurse should:

• A. help the client relate anxiety to specific triggers.
• B. ask the client to describe events that precede increased anxiety.
• C. encourage the client to practice relaxation techniques.
• D. address the client's resistive behavior.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assisting a client in gaining insight into anxiety, it is crucial to explore the events that lead to increased anxiety. By asking the client to describe these events, the nurse can help the client recognize patterns and triggers, leading to a better understanding of their anxiety. Option A is incorrect because it refers to triggers rather than exploring the events leading to anxiety. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on relaxation techniques rather than delving into the root causes of anxiety. Option D is inappropriate as addressing resistive behavior may not foster a supportive therapeutic environment for the client.

4. A 20-year-old female has a prescription for tetracycline. While teaching the client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the client is also taking Ortho-Novum oral contraceptive pills. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan?

• A. The oral contraceptives will decrease the effectiveness of the tetracycline.
• B. Nausea often results from taking oral contraceptives and antibiotics.
• C. Toxicity can result when taking these two medications together.
• D. Antibiotics can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so the client should use an alternate method of birth control.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When antibiotics and oral contraceptives are taken together, the effectiveness of the oral contraceptives can be reduced, increasing the risk of pregnancy. Therefore, it is important to advise the client to use an alternate method of birth control to prevent unintended pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no evidence to suggest that oral contraceptives decrease the effectiveness of tetracycline, cause nausea, or result in toxicity when taken with antibiotics.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Multiple Drug Use. The nurse should plan care based on knowledge that

• A. Multiple drug use is common.
• B. People might use more than one drug to enhance the effect or relieve withdrawal symptoms.
• C. Combining alcohol and barbiturates can be dangerous due to their combined depressant effects.
• D. Assessment and intervention are more complex with multiple drug use due to the synergistic effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with Multiple Drug Use, it is important to understand that individuals may use more than one drug simultaneously or sequentially to enhance the effect of a particular drug or to relieve withdrawal symptoms. This practice is common among substance users. For example, heroin users may also consume alcohol, marijuana, or benzodiazepines. Combining drugs can have various effects, such as intensifying intoxication or alleviating withdrawal symptoms. It is crucial to recognize that multiple drug use can complicate assessment and intervention due to the diverse effects of different substances on the client's health. Option A is incorrect as multiple drug use is indeed common, not uncommon. Option C is incorrect because combining alcohol and barbiturates can be dangerous due to their combined depressant effects. Option D is incorrect because multiple drug use complicates assessment and intervention rather than making them easier, as the effects of different drugs on the client need to be carefully considered.

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