NCLEX-PN
Nclex 2024 Questions
1. The licensed practical nurse is observing a graduate nurse as she assesses the central venous pressure. Which observation would indicate that the graduate needs further teaching?
- A. The graduate places the client in a supine position to read the manometer.
- B. The graduate turns the stop-cock to the off position from the IV fluid to the client.
- C. The graduate instructs the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver during the CVP reading.
- D. The graduate notes the level at the top of the meniscus.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client should breathe normally during a central venous pressure monitor reading. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is correct if the client can tolerate it. Turning the stop-cock off (Choice B) and noting the level at the top of the meniscus (Choice D) are also correct actions during CVP monitoring. Instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is incorrect as it can artificially alter the CVP reading, indicating a need for further teaching.
2. The women's health charge nurse is making assignments for the next shift. The unit is short one staff member and will receive a nurse from the medical-surgical unit. Which group of clients should she assign to the medical-surgical nurse?
- A. Total abdominal hysterectomy, bladder suspension with A&P repair, client with breast reduction
- B. C-section planning discharge, post-partum infection, mastectomy
- C. Vaginal delivery of fetal demise, C-section with pneumonia, 32-week gestation with lymphoma
- D. 28-week gestation of bed rest, post-partum with HELLP syndrome, breast reconstruction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer includes clients who have undergone surgical procedures typically managed on a medical-surgical unit. Choice A consists of clients who have had elective surgical procedures such as hysterectomy, bladder suspension with A&P repair, and breast reduction, which are commonly treated in a medical-surgical setting. Choices B, C, and D involve clients with various complications related to childbirth, fetal demise, pneumonia, gestational lymphoma, HELLP syndrome, and bed rest, which are more complex cases requiring specialized care beyond medical-surgical nursing.
3. When planning care of a client who has been diagnosed with Amphetamine Abuse, the nurse should use the knowledge that:
- A. Amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses.
- B. Amphetamines have a low risk of tolerance or addiction.
- C. Amphetamines produce a 10-20-second rush followed by a 2-4-hour high.
- D. Addiction to barbiturates and amphetamines is rare because they have opposite effects.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses. Amphetamines cause the release of norepinephrine and dopamine from storage vesicles into the synapse, leading to increased stimulation. It is important to note that clear patterns of tolerance and withdrawal have not been described with amphetamines. Choice B is incorrect as prolonged or excessive use of amphetamines can lead to psychosis, indicating a potential for addiction. Choice C is incorrect as the duration of the effects of amphetamines is typically longer than 2-4 hours. Choice D is incorrect as addiction to amphetamines is not rare; in fact, drug cravings are common and can lead to relapse, indicating a significant risk of addiction.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with epilepsy who is being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol). Which laboratory value might indicate a serious side effect of this drug?
- A. Uric acid of 5 mg/dL
- B. Hematocrit of 33%
- C. WBC 2,000 per cubic millimeter
- D. Platelets 150,000 per cubic millimeter
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) can suppress the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in the white blood cell count. A laboratory value of WBC 2,000 per cubic millimeter indicates a serious side effect of the drug. Choices A and D are within normal limits, while choice B is at the lower limit of normal. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.
5. When working with a client diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder who frequently attempts self-harm, what is the best intervention to facilitate behavior change?
- A. Constantly observing the client to prevent self-harm.
- B. Enlisting the client in defining and describing harmful behaviors.
- C. Checking on the client every 15 minutes to ensure they are not engaging in harmful behavior.
- D. Removing all items from the environment that the client could use to harm themselves.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most effective intervention when working with clients who have a history of self-harm, like the client diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder, is to involve them actively in their treatment. By enlisting the client to define and describe the harmful behaviors, the client becomes an integral part of identifying triggers and understanding the underlying causes of their actions. This approach empowers the client, promotes self-awareness, and fosters a sense of control over their behaviors. Constantly observing the client (Choice A) may lead to a lack of trust and hinder the therapeutic relationship. Checking on the client every 15 minutes (Choice C) may disrupt the client's sense of autonomy and privacy. Removing all items from the environment that could be used for self-harm (Choice D) is a temporary solution and does not address the root causes of the behavior.
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