neural tube defects in the fetus have been primarily associated with which deficiency in the mother
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023

1. Which deficiency in the mother has been primarily associated with neural tube defects in the fetus?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Folic acid deficiency in the mother has been primarily associated with neural tube defects in the fetus. Folic acid is crucial for the development of the neural tube in the early stages of pregnancy. Its deficiency can lead to neural tube defects, such as spina bifida or anencephaly. Iron deficiency is not directly related to neural tube defects but can cause other complications in pregnancy. Vitamin B12 is important for neurological function but is not the primary cause of neural tube defects. Vitamin E deficiency is not associated with neural tube defects in the fetus.

2. The manic client has just interrupted the group session with the counselor for the 4th time, explaining that she already knows this information on 'dealing with others when you are down' and constantly gets up and goes to the front. What should the nurse do at this time?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, it is important to redirect the client's energy and focus. Engaging the client in a purposeful activity like making another pot of coffee can help distract them from disruptive behavior and provide an outlet for their excess energy. This choice also helps in maintaining a therapeutic environment by involving the client in a constructive task. Asking the client to reflect on their behavior (Choice B) might not be effective during a manic episode as the client may not be in a state to critically analyze their actions. Asking the group to tell the client how they feel (Choice C) can escalate the situation and may not be appropriate in this context. Instructing the client to perform jumping jacks and count aloud (Choice D) may not address the underlying issue of disruptive behavior and may not be suitable for the current situation.

3. Is head lag expected to be resolved by 4 months of age? Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Head lag is a developmental milestone that should be resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate potential developmental delays or muscle weakness. The correct answer, 'Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps,' reflects symptoms that could be associated with developmental delays or underlying health conditions. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension (Choice A) are unlikely to be directly related to head lag. Choices C and D present symptoms that are unrelated to the issue of continued head lag at 6 months of age.

4. For a client with suspected appendicitis, in which quadrant should the nurse expect to find abdominal tenderness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: lower right. Abdominal tenderness in the lower-right quadrant is a classic sign of appendicitis. The appendix is located in the lower right abdomen, so inflammation of the appendix typically causes tenderness in this specific area. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tenderness in the upper right, upper left, and lower left quadrants, respectively, is not typical in appendicitis cases. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing the lower right quadrant for tenderness when suspecting appendicitis.

5. The nurse is checking laboratory values on a patient who has crackling rales in the lower lobes, 2+ pitting edema, and dyspnea with minimal exertion. Which of the following laboratory values does the nurse expect to be abnormal?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest heart failure. BNP is a neurohormone released from the ventricles due to increased pressure and stretch, as seen in heart failure. A BNP level greater than 51 pg/mL is often associated with mild heart failure, with higher levels indicating more severe heart failure. Potassium levels are not typically affected by heart failure. CRP is an inflammation indicator used to predict coronary artery disease risk, not directly related to heart failure in this case. The client's symptoms do not suggest bleeding or clotting abnormalities associated with platelet count issues, making platelets an unlikely abnormal value.

Similar Questions

While assessing a patient in the ICU, a nurse observes signs of a weak pulse, quick respiration, acetone breath, and nausea. Which of the following conditions is most likely occurring?
Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for a client with insomnia?
What should the nurse do while caring for a client with an eating disorder?
The chemotherapeutic agent 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) is ordered for a client as an adjunct measure to surgery. Which statement about chemotherapy is true?
Support systems during the grieving process include all of the following except:

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses