Nursing Elites

1. A patient has experienced a severe third-degree burn to the trunk in the last 36 hours. Which phase of burn management is the patient in?

• A. Shock phase
• B. Emergent phase
• C. Healing phase
• D. Wound proliferation phase

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shock phase. The shock phase occurs within the first 24-48 hours of burn management. During this phase, the focus is on stabilization, fluid resuscitation, and monitoring for potential complications. Choice B, the Emergent phase, is incorrect as it refers to the initial phase of burn care immediately after the injury. Choice C, the Healing phase, occurs later in the treatment process when the wound starts to repair itself. Choice D, the Wound proliferation phase, is not a recognized phase in burn management.

2. The charge nurse is observing a student nurse caring for a 4-month-old infant in isolation diagnosed with RSV. Which of the following would indicate to the charge nurse that the student nurse needs further instruction on isolation standards?

• A. Donning clean gloves each time she goes in the room.
• B. Wearing a clean mask each time she goes in the room.
• C. Labeling the door so staff will use Airborne Precautions.
• D. Wearing a gown when she goes in the room to administer medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Donning clean gloves each time she goes in the room.' Sterile gloves are not necessary for standard isolation precautions; clean gloves are sufficient. The student nurse should be instructed to use clean gloves to reduce the risk of spreading infections. Wearing a clean mask each time she goes in the room is a good practice to prevent the spread of respiratory infections like RSV. Labeling the door for Airborne Precautions is appropriate for RSV. Wearing a gown when entering the room to administer medication helps prevent the transmission of infectious agents.

3. The client is wheezing and struggling to breathe. Which of the inhaled medications is indicated at this time?

• A. Fluticasone (Flovent)
• B. Salmeterol (Serevent)
• C. Theophylline (Theodur)
• D. Albuterol (Atrovent)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Albuterol (Atrovent) because it is a rapid-acting bronchodilator, essential for a client experiencing wheezing and difficulty breathing. Albuterol acts quickly, dilating the airways and providing immediate relief in cases of respiratory distress. Fluticasone (Flovent) and Salmeterol (Serevent) are maintenance medications for long-term asthma control, not suitable for acute situations described. Theophylline (Theodur) is a bronchodilator but with a slower onset compared to Albuterol, making it less appropriate for a client in immediate distress.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance would be the nurse's priority concern in the burn client?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoalbuminemia
• D. Hypermagnesemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperkalemia. In a burn client, the nurse's priority concern is hyperkalemia due to cell lysis, which releases potassium into the bloodstream. This can lead to dangerous levels of potassium in the blood. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is less likely in burn clients. Hypoalbuminemia (Choice C) can occur but is not the priority in the immediate management of a burn client. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is not typically associated with burn injuries.

5. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:

• A. a maintenance dose.
• B. a loading dose.
• C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
• D. the medication to be given intravenously.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.

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