Nursing Elites

1. The client with a myocardial infarction comes to the nurse's station stating that he is ready to go home because there is nothing wrong with him. Which defense mechanism is the client using?

• A. Rationalization
• B. Denial
• C. Projection
• D. Conversion reaction

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial. The client displaying denial refuses to acknowledge the reality of having a myocardial infarction. Rationalization (choice A) involves making excuses for behavior, not denying a condition. Projection (choice C) is attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, not denying an illness. Conversion reaction (choice D) is converting psychological distress into physical symptoms, which is not evident in this scenario. Therefore, denial is the defense mechanism being used in this situation.

2. The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. Which item is most important to remove before sending the client to surgery?

• A. Hearing aid
• B. Contact lenses
• C. Wedding ring
• D. Artificial eye

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Contact lenses. It is crucial to remove contact lenses before surgery to prevent corneal drying, especially with non-extended wear lenses. Leaving the hearing aid or artificial eye in place does not pose harm to the client during surgery. While wedding rings are typically covered with tape, leaving them on is acceptable. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect in this scenario.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with epilepsy who is being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol). Which laboratory value might indicate a serious side effect of this drug?

• A. Uric acid of 5 mg/dL
• B. Hematocrit of 33%
• C. WBC 2,000 per cubic millimeter
• D. Platelets 150,000 per cubic millimeter

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) can suppress the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in the white blood cell count. A laboratory value of WBC 2,000 per cubic millimeter indicates a serious side effect of the drug. Choices A and D are within normal limits, while choice B is at the lower limit of normal. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.

4. The nursing assistant hitting the client in the long-term care facility can be charged with:

• A. Negligence
• B. Tort
• C. Assault
• D. Malpractice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assault is the appropriate charge in this scenario. Assault involves physically striking or touching someone inappropriately. Negligence (Choice A) refers to failing to provide proper care for the client. Tort (Choice B) is a wrongful act committed against the client or their property. Malpractice (Choice D) is the failure to perform an act that should have been done or the improper performance of an act resulting in harm to the client. Since the nursing assistant physically struck the client, the charge of assault is most fitting.

5. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?

• A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
• B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
• C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
• D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.

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