Nursing Elites

1. The client with a myocardial infarction comes to the nurse's station stating that he is ready to go home because there is nothing wrong with him. Which defense mechanism is the client using?

• A. Rationalization
• B. Denial
• C. Projection
• D. Conversion reaction

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial. The client displaying denial refuses to acknowledge the reality of having a myocardial infarction. Rationalization (choice A) involves making excuses for behavior, not denying a condition. Projection (choice C) is attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, not denying an illness. Conversion reaction (choice D) is converting psychological distress into physical symptoms, which is not evident in this scenario. Therefore, denial is the defense mechanism being used in this situation.

2. Social support systems include all of the following except:

• A. call-in help lines
• B. emotional assistance provided by others
• C. community support groups
• D. use of coping skills and verbalization for anger management

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Social support systems involve external sources of support like call-in help lines, emotional assistance from others, and community support groups. These external resources provide individuals with assistance and comfort. Coping skills and verbalization for anger management are personal strategies that individuals use to manage emotions internally. While these skills can be beneficial, they are not considered part of external social support systems.

3. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

4. A mother has just given birth to a baby who died soon after. The mother has been crying and states, "I can't believe this has happened to me. I did everything right during this pregnancy."? How should the nurse respond to this mother?

• A. Tell her she did nothing wrong; it was God's will.
• B. Tell her she can have another baby.
• C. Tell her that her behavior is not going to solve anything.
• D. Tell her nothing and let her mourn this loss in the manner she chooses.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Perinatal loss is a significant tragedy for parents, and it is crucial to provide sensitive and compassionate care. When a mother expresses her disbelief and feelings of doing everything right during the pregnancy, it is important for the nurse to acknowledge her pain and allow her to grieve in her way. Telling her that she did nothing wrong and it was God's will (Choice A) may not be comforting and can come across as dismissive of her feelings. Suggesting she can have another baby (Choice B) is insensitive and overlooks the grief she is experiencing for the current loss. Telling her that her behavior is not going to solve anything (Choice C) is invalidating her emotions and not supportive in this situation. Therefore, the best approach is to support her in her mourning process by respecting her feelings and allowing her to express her grief as she sees fit.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with epilepsy who is being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol). Which laboratory value might indicate a serious side effect of this drug?

• A. Uric acid of 5 mg/dL
• B. Hematocrit of 33%
• C. WBC 2,000 per cubic millimeter
• D. Platelets 150,000 per cubic millimeter

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) can suppress the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in the white blood cell count. A laboratory value of WBC 2,000 per cubic millimeter indicates a serious side effect of the drug. Choices A and D are within normal limits, while choice B is at the lower limit of normal. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.

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