Nursing Elites

1. The client with a myocardial infarction comes to the nurse's station stating that he is ready to go home because there is nothing wrong with him. Which defense mechanism is the client using?

• A. Rationalization
• B. Denial
• C. Projection
• D. Conversion reaction

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial. The client displaying denial refuses to acknowledge the reality of having a myocardial infarction. Rationalization (choice A) involves making excuses for behavior, not denying a condition. Projection (choice C) is attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, not denying an illness. Conversion reaction (choice D) is converting psychological distress into physical symptoms, which is not evident in this scenario. Therefore, denial is the defense mechanism being used in this situation.

2. Which client can best be assigned to the newly licensed practical nurse?

• A. The client receiving chemotherapy
• B. The client post-coronary bypass
• C. The client with a TURP
• D. The client with diverticulitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best client to assign to the newly licensed nurse is the most stable client. In this case, the client with diverticulitis is the most stable among the options provided. Clients receiving chemotherapy and those post-coronary bypass require specialized care and attention, making them unsuitable for a newly licensed nurse. The client with a TURP may be at risk of bleeding, needing a nurse experienced in managing such complications. Therefore, the client with diverticulitis is the most appropriate choice for the newly licensed practical nurse.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a malignancy. The classification of the primary tumor is Tis. The nurse should plan care for a tumor:

• A. That can be assessed
• B. That is in situ
• C. With increasing lymph node involvement
• D. With distant metastasis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'That is in situ.' Cancer in situ means that the cancer is still localized to the primary site. Cancer is graded in terms of tumor, grade, node involvement, and metastasis. Answer A is incorrect because Tis indicates a tumor that is in situ and can be assessed. Answer C is incorrect because T indicates tumor, not node involvement. Answer D is incorrect because a tumor that is in situ is not metastasized.

4. Hormonal agents are used to treat some cancers. An example is:

• A. thyroxine to treat thyroid cancer.
• B. ACTH to treat adrenal carcinoma.
• C. estrogen antagonists to treat breast cancer.
• D. glucagon to treat pancreatic carcinoma.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Estrogen antagonists are commonly used to treat estrogen hormone-dependent cancers such as breast carcinoma. One well-known estrogen antagonist used in breast cancer therapy is Tamoxifen (Nolvadex). This drug, in combination with surgery and other chemotherapeutic drugs, reduces breast cancer recurrence by 30%. Estrogen antagonists can also be administered to prevent breast cancer in women who have a strong family history. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism, not thyroid cancer. ACTH is an anterior pituitary hormone that stimulates the adrenal glands to release glucocorticoids; it does not treat adrenal cancer. Glucagon is a pancreatic alpha cell hormone that stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; it does not treat pancreatic cancer.

5. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

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