NCLEX-PN
Nclex 2024 Questions
1. What should the charge nurse do after overhearing the patient care assistant speaking harshly to the client with dementia?
- A. Change the patient care assistant's assignment
- B. Explore the interaction with the patient care assistant
- C. Discuss the matter with the client's family
- D. Initiate a group session with the patient care assistant
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best action for the charge nurse to take is to explore the interaction with the patient care assistant. This step allows for clarification of the situation and direct addressing of the issue. Changing the patient care assistant's assignment (choice A) might be necessary, but understanding the situation should come first. Discussing the matter with the client's family (choice C) as an initial step could escalate the situation. Initiating a group session with the patient care assistant (choice D) could be considered later as a preventive measure to avoid similar incidents in the future.
2. A man expresses surprise that his wife has become very withdrawn during hospitalization for pneumonia. Which response helps the husband understand how some people cope with hospitalization?
- A. "Hospitalization might cause a crisis. Has your wife had to cope with problems before this?"?
- B. "Some people react that way. She will be more talkative when she feels better."?
- C. "Your wife might be feeling concern that she cannot fulfill her normal roles."?
- D. "This is typical behavior for someone who is as ill as your wife."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response acknowledges that hospitalization can lead to a crisis for both patients and their families. By asking if the wife has coped with problems before, it opens up a dialogue about her coping mechanisms and past experiences. This can help the husband understand his wife's current behavior better and provide valuable insights. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the potential crisis that hospitalization can cause or inquire about the wife's coping strategies, making them less effective responses.
3. The client returns to the unit from surgery with a blood pressure of 90/50, pulse 132, respirations 30. Which action by the nurse should receive priority?
- A. Continue monitoring the vital signs
- B. Contact the physician
- C. Ask the client how they feel
- D. Ask the LPN to continue post-op care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to contact the physician immediately due to the client's abnormal vital signs. A blood pressure of 90/50, pulse of 132, and respirations of 30 indicate instability and require prompt medical attention. Continuing to monitor vital signs, as in choice A, may lead to a delay in necessary interventions. Asking the client how they feel, as in choice C, provides subjective data and does not address the urgent need for medical intervention. Involving the LPN, as in choice D, is not appropriate in this critical situation where the client's condition is unstable and requires immediate physician assessment and intervention.
4. The nurse is caring for a client who is dying. While assessing the client for signs of impending death, the nurse observes the client for:
- A. elevated blood pressure.
- B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
- C. elevated pulse rate.
- D. decreased temperature.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are a pattern of breathing characterized by rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. This pattern is often associated with conditions like cardiac failure and can be a sign of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typically associated with the dying process. Decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death. Therefore, option B, Cheyne-Stokes respiration, is the correct choice when assessing a client for signs of impending death.
5. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?
- A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
- B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
- C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
- D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.
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