Nursing Elites

1. What should the charge nurse do after overhearing the patient care assistant speaking harshly to the client with dementia?

• A. Change the patient care assistant's assignment
• B. Explore the interaction with the patient care assistant
• C. Discuss the matter with the client's family
• D. Initiate a group session with the patient care assistant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best action for the charge nurse to take is to explore the interaction with the patient care assistant. This step allows for clarification of the situation and direct addressing of the issue. Changing the patient care assistant's assignment (choice A) might be necessary, but understanding the situation should come first. Discussing the matter with the client's family (choice C) as an initial step could escalate the situation. Initiating a group session with the patient care assistant (choice D) could be considered later as a preventive measure to avoid similar incidents in the future.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with cerebral palsy. The nurse should provide frequent rest periods because:

• A. Grimacing and writhing movements decrease with relaxation and rest.
• B. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes become more active with rest.
• C. Stretch reflexes are increased with rest.
• D. Fine motor movements are improved.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Frequent rest periods help to relax tense muscles and preserve energy in clients with cerebral palsy. This can lead to a decrease in grimacing and writhing movements, as relaxation and rest help to alleviate muscle tension. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they provide inaccurate information. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes do not become more active with rest; stretch reflexes are not increased with rest in cerebral palsy patients, and fine motor movements are not necessarily improved solely by rest.

3. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

• A. Peaked P wave
• B. Elevated ST segment
• C. Inverted T wave
• D. Prolonged QT interval

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

4. A nurse is teaching the mother of an 11-month-old infant how to clean the infant's teeth. The nurse tells the mother to take which action?

• A. Use a small amount of toothpaste and a soft-bristle toothbrush
• B. Use water and a cotton swab and rub the teeth
• C. Use diluted fluoride and rub the teeth with a soft washcloth
• D. Dip the infant's pacifier in maple syrup so that the infant will suck

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action when cleaning an infant's teeth is to use water and a cotton swab to gently rub the teeth. This method helps in removing any food particles or plaque buildup without the risks associated with toothpaste ingestion. Using a small amount of toothpaste and a soft-bristle toothbrush is not recommended for infants as they may swallow the toothpaste, leading to potential fluoride ingestion issues. Using diluted fluoride and rubbing the teeth with a soft washcloth is unnecessary at this age since infants typically receive fluoride through other sources like formula. Dipping the infant's pacifier in maple syrup is highly inappropriate and poses a significant risk of tooth decay due to the high sugar content, which can harm the infant's teeth.

5. A client goes to the mental health center for difficulty concentrating, insomnia, and nightmares. The client reports being raped as a child. The nurse should assess the client for further signs of:

• A. generalized anxiety disorder.
• B. schizophrenia.
• C. post-traumatic stress disorder.
• D. bipolar disorder.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Given the history of childhood sexual abuse and the presenting symptoms of difficulty concentrating, insomnia, and nightmares, the nurse should assess the client for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Childhood sexual abuse is strongly associated with adult-onset depression and an increased risk for PTSD. Individuals with PTSD may exhibit re-experiencing symptoms such as flashbacks, nightmares, and heightened reactions to trauma triggers. They may also display emotional numbing, avoidance behaviors, and increased arousal symptoms like difficulty sleeping and hypervigilance. Generalized anxiety disorder (Choice A) is characterized by excessive worry and anxiety about various events or activities, not necessarily tied to a specific trauma. Schizophrenia (Choice B) is a severe mental disorder characterized by distortions in thinking, perception, emotions, and behavior, unrelated to the traumatic event described. Bipolar disorder (Choice D) involves mood swings between depressive and manic episodes, and its symptoms differ from those typically seen in PTSD.

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