Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient in the rehab unit during shift change. The patient has sustained a TBI 3 weeks ago. Which of the following is the most distinguishing characteristic of a neurological disturbance?

• A. LOC (level of consciousness)
• B. Short-term memory
• C. Babinski sign
• D. Clonus sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Level of consciousness (LOC) is the most crucial indicator of impaired neurological function. Changes in LOC can signify various neurological conditions, including traumatic brain injury. Short-term memory, while important, is not the most distinguishing characteristic of neurological disturbances. Babinski and Clonus signs are specific neurological tests that can provide information about upper motor neuron lesions but are not as generalizable as changes in LOC for assessing overall neurological status.

2. Which microorganism is most commonly associated with gastritis?

• A. Syphilis
• B. Cytomegalovirus
• C. H. pylori
• D. Mycobacterium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: H. pylori is the most common microorganism associated with gastritis, present in over 80% of cases. While syphilis, cytomegalovirus, and mycobacterium can also cause gastritis, they are much less prevalent compared to H. pylori. Therefore, the correct answer is H. pylori.

3. Teaching about the importance of avoiding foods high in potassium is most crucial for which client?

• A. a client receiving diuretic therapy
• B. a client with an ileostomy
• C. a client with metabolic alkalosis
• D. a client with renal disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with renal disease are prone to hyperkalemia due to impaired kidney function, making it crucial for them to avoid foods high in potassium to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because clients receiving diuretic therapy, with an ileostomy, or with metabolic alkalosis are at risk of hypokalemia. These individuals should actually consume foods high in potassium to replenish the electrolyte lost through diuresis, ileostomy output, or metabolic alkalosis.

4. In a client with asthma who develops respiratory acidosis, what should the nurse expect the client's serum potassium level to be?

• A. normal
• B. elevated
• C. low
• D. unrelated to the pH

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, the serum potassium level is expected to be elevated. This occurs because potassium shifts from cells into the bloodstream as a compensatory mechanism to maintain acid-base balance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A normal potassium level is not expected in respiratory acidosis. A low potassium level is more commonly associated with alkalosis, not acidosis. The potassium level is indeed related to pH changes in respiratory acidosis, leading to the expected elevation.

5. The anemias most often associated with pregnancy are:

• A. folic acid and iron deficiency.
• B. folic acid deficiency and thalassemia.
• C. iron deficiency and thalassemia.
• D. thalassemia and B12 deficiency.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Folic acid and iron deficiency anemia are the most common types of anemia associated with pregnancy. Approximately 50% of pregnant women experience this type of anemia. Iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy typically results from the increased plasma volume, rather than a decrease in iron levels. Moreover, if a woman has iron deficiency anemia before pregnancy, it often worsens during pregnancy. Folic acid deficiency is also prevalent during pregnancy due to the increased demand for this nutrient to support fetal development. Thalassemia and B12 deficiency, while types of anemia, are not as commonly associated with pregnancy compared to folic acid and iron deficiency anemia, making them incorrect choices in this context.

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