NCLEX-PN
PN Nclex Questions 2024
1. How does the ANA define the psychiatric nursing role?
- A. a specialized area of nursing practice that employs theories of human behavior as its science and the powerful use of self as its art
- B. assisting the therapist to relieve the symptoms of clients
- C. to solve clients' problems and give them the answers
- D. having a client committed to long-term therapy with the nurse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer aligns with the ANA's definition of the psychiatric nursing role. According to the ANA, psychiatric nursing is a specialized area of nursing practice that incorporates theories of human behavior as its foundational science and utilizes the self as its essential art. This definition emphasizes the importance of understanding human behavior and leveraging therapeutic communication and relationships to provide effective care for individuals with mental health concerns. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the ANA-defined role of psychiatric nursing. Psychiatric nurses primarily focus on delivering holistic care, promoting mental health, and supporting individuals with mental health challenges using evidence-based practices and therapeutic interventions.
2. Which of the following roommates would be best for the client newly admitted with gastric resection?
- A. A client with Crohn's disease
- B. A client with pneumonia
- C. A client with gastritis
- D. A client with phlebitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most suitable roommate for the client newly admitted with gastric resection is the client with phlebitis. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the blood vessel and is not infectious, making it a safer option for the surgical client. Crohn's disease clients (choice A) have frequent stools that might spread infections to the surgical client, posing a risk. A client with pneumonia (choice B) is coughing, which can disturb the gastric client's recovery. Additionally, a client with gastritis (choice C) who is vomiting and experiencing diarrhea would also not be an ideal roommate for a client recovering from gastric resection.
3. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?
- A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
- B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
- C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
- D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.
4. A client is taking hydrocodone (Vicodin) for chronic back pain. The client has required an increase in the dose and asks whether this means he is addicted to Vicodin. The nurse should base her reply on the knowledge that:
- A. the client's body has developed tolerance, requiring more drug to produce the same effect
- B. the client is preoccupied with getting the drug and is experiencing loss of control, indicating drug dependence
- C. addiction involves psychological behaviors related to substance use, not just physical dependence
- D. the client is coping with chronic back pain and requires adjustments in the medication regimen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client requires an increased dose of a drug, such as in this case with hydrocodone, it suggests that the body has developed tolerance to the medication. Tolerance means that the client needs more of the drug to achieve the same effect as before. This does not inherently indicate addiction, which involves psychological behaviors related to substance use. Choice B describes drug dependence, where the client is preoccupied with obtaining the drug and experiences loss of control, which is not the same as tolerance. Choice C correctly points out that addiction is more than just physical dependence with withdrawal symptoms and tolerance; it includes psychological factors. Choice D is irrelevant as it discusses adjusting the medication for pain management, not addressing the client's concern about addiction.
5. The nurse is assigning staff for the day. Which assignment should be given to the nursing assistant?
- A. Taking the vital signs of the 5-month-old with bronchiolitis
- B. Taking the vital signs of the 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy
- C. Administering medication to the 2-year-old with periorbital cellulitis
- D. Adjusting the traction of the 1-year-old with a fractured tibia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate assignment for a nursing assistant is to take the vital signs of a stable patient. A 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy is considered stable, and routine vital signs monitoring can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant. Clients with bronchiolitis, periorbital cellulitis, and a fractured tibia require more specialized care and assessment by a licensed nurse. Bronchiolitis involves an airway alteration, periorbital cellulitis indicates an infection, and a fractured tibia may raise concerns of abuse. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect for delegation to a nursing assistant.
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