Nursing Elites

1. How does the ANA define the psychiatric nursing role?

• A. a specialized area of nursing practice that employs theories of human behavior as its science and the powerful use of self as its art
• B. assisting the therapist to relieve the symptoms of clients
• C. to solve clients’ problems and give them the answers
• D. having a client committed to long-term therapy with the nurse

Correct answer: a specialized area of nursing practice that employs theories of human behavior as its science and the powerful use of self as its art

Rationale: The correct answer aligns with the ANA's definition of the psychiatric nursing role. According to the ANA, psychiatric nursing is a specialized area of nursing practice that incorporates theories of human behavior as its foundational science and utilizes the self as its essential art. This definition emphasizes the importance of understanding human behavior and leveraging therapeutic communication and relationships to provide effective care for individuals with mental health concerns. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the ANA-defined role of psychiatric nursing. Psychiatric nurses primarily focus on delivering holistic care, promoting mental health, and supporting individuals with mental health challenges using evidence-based practices and therapeutic interventions.

2. There are many types of torts that can be committed against clients. They include all of the following except:

• A. assault.
• B. battery.
• C. negligence.
• D. felony.

Correct answer: felony.

Rationale: The correct answer is 'felony.' Felonies are serious crimes punishable by time in prison and are not considered types of torts. Types of torts include assault, battery, negligence, as well as other examples like slander, invasion of privacy, false imprisonment, and fraud. Assault involves the threat of harm, battery involves physical harm, and negligence involves a failure to exercise reasonable care. These are all civil wrongs (torts) rather than criminal offenses (felonies), making 'felony' the correct choice.

3. The client with a myocardial infarction comes to the nurse’s station stating that he is ready to go home because there is nothing wrong with him. Which defense mechanism is the client using?

• A. Rationalization
• B. Denial
• C. Projection
• D. Conversion reaction

Correct answer: Denial

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial. The client displaying denial refuses to acknowledge the reality of having a myocardial infarction. Rationalization (choice A) involves making excuses for behavior, not denying a condition. Projection (choice C) is attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, not denying an illness. Conversion reaction (choice D) is converting psychological distress into physical symptoms, which is not evident in this scenario. Therefore, denial is the defense mechanism being used in this situation.

4. The chemotherapeutic DNA alkylating agents such as nitrogen mustards are effective because they:

• A. cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA.
• B. have few, if any, side effects.
• C. are used to treat multiple types of cancer.
• D. are cell-cycle-specific agents.

Correct answer: cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA.

Rationale: Alkylating agents, such as nitrogen mustards, are effective chemotherapeutic agents because they cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA. This cross-linking interferes with DNA replication and transcription, leading to cell death. Choice B is incorrect because alkylating agents have numerous side effects, including alopecia, nausea, vomiting, and myelosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because while nitrogen mustards are used to treat multiple types of cancer like chronic lymphocytic leukemia, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and breast and ovarian cancer, their effectiveness is primarily due to DNA cross-linkage. Choice D is incorrect because alkylating agents are non-cell-cycle-specific agents, meaning they can act on cells in any phase of the cell cycle, not just on cells that are actively dividing.

5. The home health nurse is planning for the day’s visits. Which client should be seen first?

• A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
• B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
• C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
• D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter

Correct answer: The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter

Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.

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