NCLEX-PN
PN Nclex Questions 2024
1. How does the ANA define the psychiatric nursing role?
- A. a specialized area of nursing practice that employs theories of human behavior as its science and the powerful use of self as its art
- B. assisting the therapist to relieve the symptoms of clients
- C. to solve clients' problems and give them the answers
- D. having a client committed to long-term therapy with the nurse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer aligns with the ANA's definition of the psychiatric nursing role. According to the ANA, psychiatric nursing is a specialized area of nursing practice that incorporates theories of human behavior as its foundational science and utilizes the self as its essential art. This definition emphasizes the importance of understanding human behavior and leveraging therapeutic communication and relationships to provide effective care for individuals with mental health concerns. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the ANA-defined role of psychiatric nursing. Psychiatric nurses primarily focus on delivering holistic care, promoting mental health, and supporting individuals with mental health challenges using evidence-based practices and therapeutic interventions.
2. While the client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which lab test should be evaluated?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. Creatinine
- C. Blood glucose
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial as TPN solutions contain high amounts of glucose. This monitoring helps prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Evaluating hemoglobin (choice A) is not directly related to TPN administration. Creatinine (choice B) is more relevant for assessing kidney function. White blood cell count (choice D) is important for evaluating immune function and infection, but not specifically tied to TPN administration.
3. A client is 2 days post-operative colon resection. After a coughing episode, the client's wound eviscerates. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
- A. Reinsert the protruding organ and cover with 4x4s
- B. Cover the wound with a sterile 4x4 and ABD dressing
- C. Cover the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing
- D. Apply an abdominal binder and manual pressure to the wound
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario where a client's wound eviscerates, the most appropriate nursing action is to cover the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing. Reinserting the protruding organ, as mentioned in choice A, is incorrect because it can lead to further complications requiring the client to return to surgery. Choice B, covering the wound with a sterile 4x4 and ABD dressing, is not ideal as it may not provide adequate protection and moisture for the exposed tissue. Choice D, applying an abdominal binder and manual pressure to the wound, is inappropriate as it does not address the specific needs of wound evisceration. Covering the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing helps maintain a moist environment, protects the exposed tissue, and prevents infection, promoting optimal wound healing and reducing the risk of complications.
4. A nurse notes that an elderly client suddenly does not keep appointments and is not wearing appropriate clothing. Which statement by the client raises the suspicion of financial abuse?
- A. "I am having difficulty paying for this new antibiotic the physician prescribed."?
- B. "I am a little short on cash since my daughter moved in to help me."?
- C. "I have not felt like shopping since the weather has gotten worse."?
- D. "People do not realize how difficult it is to make ends meet on a fixed income."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I am a little short on cash since my daughter moved in to help me."? This statement raises suspicion of financial abuse as it suggests a recent change in financial circumstances after the daughter moved in. Financial abuse in elderly clients can be indicated by sudden unexplained financial deficits or changes, such as difficulty paying for necessities despite previously being able to do so. Choices A, C, and D do not directly imply a recent financial change due to external factors, making them less indicative of potential financial abuse. Option B is the most concerning statement that warrants further investigation into possible financial exploitation.
5. The physician prescribes captopril (Capoten) 25mg po tid for the client with hypertension. Which of the following adverse reactions can occur with administration of Capoten?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Persistent cough
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A persistent cough might be related to an adverse reaction to captopril (Capoten). Tinnitus (choice A) and diarrhea (choice D) are not commonly associated adverse reactions of captopril. Muscle weakness (choice C) might occur initially but is not considered a common adverse effect of captopril. Therefore, the correct answer is B, persistent cough, as it is a known adverse reaction to captopril.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access