Nursing Elites

1. High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by:

• A. the inability of the kidneys to excrete the drug metabolites.
• B. rapid cell catabolism.
• C. toxic effects of the prophylactic antibiotics that are given concurrently.
• D. the altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' During chemotherapy, rapid cell destruction occurs, leading to an increase in uric acid levels as a byproduct of cell breakdown. High uric acid levels are primarily a result of the rapid breakdown of cells during chemotherapy, not due to the kidneys' inability to excrete drug metabolites (Choice A). The prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently do not directly cause high uric acid levels (Choice C). The altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs (Choice D) is not a direct cause of elevated uric acid levels; the main mechanism is the rapid cell catabolism that occurs during chemotherapy.

2. A client who has a known history of cardiac problems and is still smoking enters the clinic complaining of sudden onset of sharp, stabbing pain that intensifies with a deep breath. The pain is occurring on only one side and can be isolated upon general assessment. The nurse concludes that this description is most likely caused by:

• A. pleurisy.
• B. pleural effusion.
• C. atelectasis.
• D. tuberculosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pleurisy is an inflammation of the pleura and is often accompanied by an abrupt onset of pain. Symptoms of pleurisy include sudden sharp, stabbing pain that is usually unilateral and localized to a specific portion of the chest. The pain can be exacerbated by deep breathing. In contrast, pleural effusion is characterized by fluid accumulation in the pleural space, not sharp pain. Atelectasis involves collapse or closure of a lung leading to reduced gas exchange, but it does not typically present with sharp, stabbing pain. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs but does not typically manifest with sudden sharp pain exacerbated by deep breathing.

3. A client complaining of chest pain is prescribed an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid). After the infusion is initiated, the occurrence of which symptom warrants the nurse discontinuing an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin?

• A. Frontal headache
• B. Orthostatic hypotension
• C. Decrease in intensity of chest pain
• D. Cool clammy skin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cool clammy skin.' This assessment finding indicates decreased cardiac output that could result from excessive vasodilation. Cool clammy skin is a sign of poor perfusion, suggesting that the blood pressure might be dropping too low. Discontinuing the nitroglycerin infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Choice A, 'Frontal headache,' is a common side effect of nitroglycerin but not a reason to discontinue the infusion unless severe or persistent. Choice B, 'Orthostatic hypotension,' may occur as a side effect of nitroglycerin but does not necessarily warrant discontinuation unless severe. Choice C, 'Decrease in intensity of chest pain,' is actually an expected therapeutic response to nitroglycerin and indicates improved myocardial perfusion, so it is not a reason to stop the infusion.

4. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

5. Which of the following situations requires nurse intervention?

• A. A certified nursing assistant states, 'The patient in 307 is not wearing gloves while shaving her legs.'
• B. A nursing assistant at the nursing station states, 'The patient in 307 has a respiratory rate of 16.'
• C. A nursing student in the cafeteria states, 'Dr. Jones told the patient in room 307 that she was going to die.'
• D. A certified nursing assistant states, 'Dr. Jones hasn't made rounds this morning.'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Patient confidentiality must be maintained at all times to respect the patient's privacy and dignity. Disclosing sensitive information like a patient's prognosis in a public setting violates confidentiality and can cause distress. The nurse should intervene in this situation and educate the nursing student about the importance of not discussing confidential patient information in public. Choices A, B, and D do not involve breaching patient confidentiality and do not require immediate nurse intervention. Choice A focuses on infection control measures, choice B relates to clinical assessment, and choice D is about the doctor's rounds, which are not urgent matters requiring immediate intervention.

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