Nursing Elites

1. High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by:

• A. the inability of the kidneys to excrete the drug metabolites.
• B. rapid cell catabolism.
• C. toxic effects of the prophylactic antibiotics that are given concurrently.
• D. the altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' During chemotherapy, rapid cell destruction occurs, leading to an increase in uric acid levels as a byproduct of cell breakdown. High uric acid levels are primarily a result of the rapid breakdown of cells during chemotherapy, not due to the kidneys' inability to excrete drug metabolites (Choice A). The prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently do not directly cause high uric acid levels (Choice C). The altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs (Choice D) is not a direct cause of elevated uric acid levels; the main mechanism is the rapid cell catabolism that occurs during chemotherapy.

2. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

3. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?

• A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
• B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
• C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
• D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a condition where a person ignores one side of their body. In this case, the behavior of shaving only one side of the face indicates neglect of the other side. This behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect as the individual is failing to attend to one side of their body. Choices B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect. Choice B refers to tactile agnosia, a condition where a person cannot recognize objects by touch, not related to ignoring one side of the body. Choice C describes a visual field cut, which is a different visual deficit. Choice D relates to dual-task interference, not specific to ignoring one side of the body.

4. To determine the standards of care for the institution, the nurse should consult?

• A. Organizational Chart
• B. Personnel policies
• C. Policies and procedure manual
• D. Job descriptions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the 'Policies and procedure manual.' This manual outlines the policies and procedures that govern patient care within the institution, including the standards of care that healthcare providers are expected to follow. Consulting the policies and procedure manual ensures that the nurse is adhering to the established guidelines and protocols. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although they are important documents within an institution, they do not specifically define the standards of care for patient management. The organizational chart illustrates the hierarchy of the institution, personnel policies outline rules related to employees, and job descriptions detail specific roles and responsibilities, none of which directly define patient care standards.

5. A client with sleep apnea has been ordered a CPAP machine. Which action could the RN delegate to a nursing assistant?

• A. Reminding the client to apply the CPAP at bedtime
• B. Obtaining every three-hour oxygen saturation levels
• C. Teaching the client how to turn on the CPAP machine
• D. Assessing for fatigue or depression caused by poor sleep

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is reminding the client to apply the CPAP at bedtime. This task can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant as it involves a simple and routine reminder. Option B, obtaining oxygen saturation levels, requires a higher level of training and interpretation of results, making it more appropriate for an RN. Option C, teaching the client how to turn on the CPAP machine, involves educating the client and ensuring proper use of medical equipment, which is within the RN's scope of practice. Option D, assessing for fatigue or depression, requires a comprehensive evaluation that involves interpreting symptoms and identifying underlying causes, making it more suitable for an RN to address.

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