Nursing Elites

1. A 20-year-old female has a prescription for tetracycline. While teaching the client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the client is also taking Ortho-Novum oral contraceptive pills. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan?

• A. The oral contraceptives will decrease the effectiveness of the tetracycline.
• B. Nausea often results from taking oral contraceptives and antibiotics.
• C. Toxicity can result when taking these two medications together.
• D. Antibiotics can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so the client should use an alternate method of birth control.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When antibiotics and oral contraceptives are taken together, the effectiveness of the oral contraceptives can be reduced, increasing the risk of pregnancy. Therefore, it is important to advise the client to use an alternate method of birth control to prevent unintended pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no evidence to suggest that oral contraceptives decrease the effectiveness of tetracycline, cause nausea, or result in toxicity when taken with antibiotics.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to assess the acoustic nerve during a neurological examination. To assess this nerve, the provider uses which technique?

• A. Uses a tuning fork
• B. Asks the client to puff out the cheeks
• C. Tests taste perception on the client's tongue
• D. Checks the client's ability to clench the teeth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Testing of cranial nerve VIII (acoustic nerve) involves assessing hearing acuity through techniques like the whispered voice test and tuning fork tests (Weber and Rinne). Using a tuning fork helps determine if sound lateralizes to one ear (Weber) and compares air conduction to bone conduction (Rinne). Asking the client to puff out the cheeks is for cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function evaluation. Testing taste perception on the tongue assesses cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) function. Checking the ability to clench teeth assesses cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) motor function.

3. The client with a myocardial infarction comes to the nurse's station stating that he is ready to go home because there is nothing wrong with him. Which defense mechanism is the client using?

• A. Rationalization
• B. Denial
• C. Projection
• D. Conversion reaction

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial. The client displaying denial refuses to acknowledge the reality of having a myocardial infarction. Rationalization (choice A) involves making excuses for behavior, not denying a condition. Projection (choice C) is attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, not denying an illness. Conversion reaction (choice D) is converting psychological distress into physical symptoms, which is not evident in this scenario. Therefore, denial is the defense mechanism being used in this situation.

4. What is a common characteristic of individuals who become batterers?

• A. Grew up in a loving, secure home.
• B. Was an only child.
• C. Was physically or psychologically abused.
• D. Admits they have a problem with anger.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Was physically or psychologically abused.' Research indicates that many individuals who become batterers have a history of being abused themselves. This cycle of abuse can influence their behavior as adults. Choice A is incorrect because growing up in a loving home does not necessarily prevent someone from becoming a batterer. Choice B is incorrect as being an only child is not a determining factor in becoming a batterer. Choice D is incorrect because while admitting to anger issues is a positive step, it is not a common characteristic of individuals who become batterers.

5. Upon arrival at the emergency room, the client presents with severe burns to the left arm, hands, face, and neck. What action should take priority?

• A. Starting an IV
• B. Applying oxygen
• C. Obtaining blood gases
• D. Medicating the client for pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with severe burns to the face and neck, airway assessment and supplemental oxygen are crucial. Therefore, applying oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation for the client. This intervention takes precedence over other actions to stabilize the client's condition. Starting an IV for fluid resuscitation is the next appropriate step following ensuring oxygenation (Choice A). While pain management is important, it is a secondary priority after ensuring oxygenation and fluid resuscitation, making medicating the client for pain a later intervention (Choice D). Obtaining blood gases (Choice C) is not the immediate priority in this scenario and would typically be ordered by the healthcare provider based on the client's condition and response to initial interventions.

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