Nursing Elites

1. A 20-year-old female has a prescription for tetracycline. While teaching the client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the client is also taking Ortho-Novum oral contraceptive pills. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan?

• A. The oral contraceptives will decrease the effectiveness of the tetracycline.
• B. Nausea often results from taking oral contraceptives and antibiotics.
• C. Toxicity can result when taking these two medications together.
• D. Antibiotics can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so the client should use an alternate method of birth control.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When antibiotics and oral contraceptives are taken together, the effectiveness of the oral contraceptives can be reduced, increasing the risk of pregnancy. Therefore, it is important to advise the client to use an alternate method of birth control to prevent unintended pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no evidence to suggest that oral contraceptives decrease the effectiveness of tetracycline, cause nausea, or result in toxicity when taken with antibiotics.

2. Mrs. Owens is the 81-year-old mother of Jonathan, who is 54 years old. Jonathan has had schizophrenia since he was 16 years old. Which of Mrs. Owens's concerns is likely to predominate?

• A. "Will my retirement funds outlast me?"?
• B. "Who will handle my funeral arrangements?"?
• C. "What will become of Jonathan when I am gone?"?
• D. "How can I communicate effectively with Jonathan's physician?"?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most prominent concern for Mrs. Owens is likely what will happen to her son, Jonathan, after she passes away. While retirement fund sustainability is important, it is not likely to be her primary concern. Funeral arrangements, although significant, are secondary to the welfare of her son with schizophrenia. The question of how to communicate with Jonathan's physician is less likely to be a predominant concern since Mrs. Owens has likely already addressed this issue over the 38 years of managing her son's care.

3. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?

• A. Atropine sulfate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Prostigmin
• D. Promethazine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.

4. A client asks the nurse if all donor blood products are cross-matched with the recipient to prevent a transfusion reaction. Which of the following always requires cross-matching?

• A. packed red blood cells
• B. platelets
• C. plasma
• D. granulocytes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Packed red blood cells contain antigens and antibodies that must be matched between the donor and recipient to prevent transfusion reactions. Platelets, plasma, and granulocytes do not contain red blood cells, so they do not require cross-matching. Platelets are matched based on ABO compatibility, while plasma and granulocytes are not routinely cross-matched as they lack red cell antigens.

5. A client goes to the mental health center for difficulty concentrating, insomnia, and nightmares. The client reports being raped as a child. The nurse should assess the client for further signs of:

• A. generalized anxiety disorder.
• B. schizophrenia.
• C. post-traumatic stress disorder.
• D. bipolar disorder.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Given the history of childhood sexual abuse and the presenting symptoms of difficulty concentrating, insomnia, and nightmares, the nurse should assess the client for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Childhood sexual abuse is strongly associated with adult-onset depression and an increased risk for PTSD. Individuals with PTSD may exhibit re-experiencing symptoms such as flashbacks, nightmares, and heightened reactions to trauma triggers. They may also display emotional numbing, avoidance behaviors, and increased arousal symptoms like difficulty sleeping and hypervigilance. Generalized anxiety disorder (Choice A) is characterized by excessive worry and anxiety about various events or activities, not necessarily tied to a specific trauma. Schizophrenia (Choice B) is a severe mental disorder characterized by distortions in thinking, perception, emotions, and behavior, unrelated to the traumatic event described. Bipolar disorder (Choice D) involves mood swings between depressive and manic episodes, and its symptoms differ from those typically seen in PTSD.

Similar Questions