Nursing Elites

1. Around what age do children typically start to develop 'stranger anxiety'?

• A. 9 months
• B. 6 months
• C. 3 months
• D. 12 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is '6 months.' At around this age, children typically start to develop 'stranger anxiety' as they become more aware of unfamiliar faces and may start showing signs of distress or anxiety around strangers. At 3 months, infants are still very young and unlikely to display stranger anxiety. While by 9 or 12 months, children have usually already developed some level of stranger anxiety, it typically starts around 6 months, making it the most appropriate answer in this context.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Primary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

3. While assessing a client’s skin, the nurse notes the presence of several large red-blue and purple areas on the client’s body that do not blanch when pressure is applied. The nurse documents this finding using which term?

• A. Psoriasis
• B. Anasarca
• C. Petechiae
• D. Ecchymosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ecchymosis refers to a large patch of capillary bleeding into the tissues, commonly known as a bruise. The color of such an area changes from red-blue or purple to green, yellow, and brown before the area disappears. Pressure on the area will not cause it to blanch. Psoriasis is characterized by scaly erythematous patches with silvery scales on top, usually found on specific areas like the scalp, elbows, knees, low back, and anogenital area. Anasarca is bilateral or generalized edema, indicating a central problem like congestive heart failure or kidney failure. Petechiae are tiny purple or red spots resulting from tiny hemorrhages within the dermal and subdermal areas. Therefore, in this case, the correct term to document the described finding is Ecchymosis.

4. Which of the following actions should the LPN perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order? Select all that apply.

• A. plug the patient to the ECG Monitor
• B. Administer the medication over at least 5 minutes.
• C. Monitor respirations during administration.
• D. Monitor the client's pulse for 1 minute prior to administration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct actions for the LPN to perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order are to monitor ECG rhythm throughout administration and monitor the client's pulse for 1 minute prior to administration. These actions are crucial as digoxin affects the heart's electrical activity, and it should not be administered if the client's pulse is less than 60 bpm. Monitoring respirations and blood pressure are not directly associated with digoxin administration. Administering IV medications is typically outside the LPN's scope of practice.

5. A healthcare professional reviewing the health care record of a client notes documentation of grade 4 muscle strength. The healthcare professional understands that this indicates:

• A. Full ROM with gravity
• B. Full ROM against gravity with full resistance
• C. Full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion)
• D. Full ROM against gravity with some resistance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Muscle strength is graded on a scale of 0 to 5. A grade of 5 indicates normal strength and is described as full ROM against gravity with full resistance. Grade 4 indicates good strength and full ROM against gravity with some resistance. Grade 3 indicates fair strength and full ROM with gravity. Grade 2 indicates poor strength and full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion). Grade 1 indicates trace strength and slight contraction. Grade 0 indicates zero strength and no contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Full ROM against gravity with some resistance.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the description of muscle strength associated with a grade of 4.

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