Nursing Elites

1. What dietary alterations should a pregnant client with congenital heart disease expect?

• A. reduced calories and reduced fat
• B. caffeine and sodium restrictions
• C. decreased protein and increased complex carbohydrates
• D. fluid restriction and reduced calories

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a pregnant client with congenital heart disease, caffeine should be restricted as it can increase heart rate, which is already under stress due to pregnancy. Sodium restrictions may be necessary to prevent fluid retention, which can worsen the client's heart condition. Decreasing calories, fat, protein, or fluid may not be appropriate as these can lead to nutrient deficiencies or inadequate energy intake, which is crucial during pregnancy. Therefore, options A, C, and D are not the expected dietary alterations in the client's diet during pregnancy with congenital heart disease.

2. The physician's role in case management includes all of the following except:

• A. participating in interdisciplinary planning for clients.
• B. serving as the expert for resource utilization.
• C. consulting with the case management team to facilitate timely orders as needed.
• D. contributing to the documentation of a client's needs for services.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'serving as the expert for resource utilization.' While physicians play a crucial role in case management, their primary focus is on medical diagnosis and treatment rather than resource utilization. Choices A, C, and D are all roles that physicians typically fulfill in case management. A physician participating in interdisciplinary planning for clients ensures comprehensive care, consulting with the case management team helps in coordinating timely orders, and contributing to the documentation of a client's needs for services aids in providing appropriate care. Therefore, serving as the expert for resource utilization does not align with the primary responsibilities of a physician in case management.

3. During an annual physical exam, a client is diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH). This client is likely to have a consult with which type of physician?

• A. gynecologist
• B. physiatrist
• C. urologist
• D. proctologist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) would typically have a consult with a urologist. Urologists specialize in urinary tract and prostatic diseases, making them the appropriate choice for managing BPH. A gynecologist focuses on diseases of the female reproductive tract, so they are not relevant in this case. A physiatrist specializes in rehabilitation care, which is not directly related to the treatment of BPH. A proctologist specializes in lower colonic digestive diseases, which are unrelated to BPH.

4. Nail and foot care are essential in meeting the basic hygiene needs of clients. Important assessments by the nurse in this area include:

• A. a full-body assessment is not specific to nail and foot care.
• B. the essential lab work of the client is not related to nail and foot assessments.
• C. the nail beds and the tissue surrounding the nails.
• D. foot corns and calluses only neglect other important aspects of nail and foot care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the nail beds and the tissue surrounding the nails. This assessment is crucial to identify abnormal discoloration, lesions, paronychia, dryness, breaks in the skin, pressure areas, or any other unusual appearances. Choice A is incorrect as a full-body assessment is broader and not specific to nail and foot care. Choice B is incorrect as lab work is not directly related to nail and foot assessments. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses only on foot corns and calluses, neglecting other important aspects of nail and foot care.

5. How often should physical restraints be released?

• A. Every 2 hours
• B. Between 1 and 3 hours
• C. Every 30 minutes
• D. At least every 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to release physical restraints every 2 hours. Releasing restraints every 2 hours helps prevent complications associated with prolonged immobilization. Releasing restraints every 30 minutes (choice C) may be too frequent and disruptive to the client's care. Releasing restraints between 1 and 3 hours (choice B) introduces variability that could lead to inconsistencies in care. Releasing restraints at least every 4 hours (choice D) does not adhere to the recommended frequency of every 2 hours.

Similar Questions