Nursing Elites

1. What dietary alterations should a pregnant client with congenital heart disease expect?

• A. reduced calories and reduced fat
• B. caffeine and sodium restrictions
• C. decreased protein and increased complex carbohydrates
• D. fluid restriction and reduced calories

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a pregnant client with congenital heart disease, caffeine should be restricted as it can increase heart rate, which is already under stress due to pregnancy. Sodium restrictions may be necessary to prevent fluid retention, which can worsen the client's heart condition. Decreasing calories, fat, protein, or fluid may not be appropriate as these can lead to nutrient deficiencies or inadequate energy intake, which is crucial during pregnancy. Therefore, options A, C, and D are not the expected dietary alterations in the client's diet during pregnancy with congenital heart disease.

2. A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for all of the following except:

• A. identifying risks.
• B. controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims.
• C. ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions.
• D. analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for identifying risks, controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims, and analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs. It is not responsible for ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions. Monitoring staff adherence to their job descriptions falls under the purview of departmental managers or supervisors. The primary focus of a risk management program is to assess, mitigate, and manage risks related to patient safety, quality of care, and financial implications, rather than overseeing staff job descriptions.

3. The LPN is checking for residual before administering enteral feeding through a PEG tube. Which of these steps is incorrect?

• A. The LPN elevates the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees.
• B. If the residual is greater than 200mL, the LPN should not administer the enteral feeding.
• C. The LPN should discard the residual before administering the tube feeding.
• D. The residual pH level is tested to ensure appropriate placement.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The incorrect step is choice C. The residual should be discarded before administering the tube feeding. Discarding the residual is essential to prevent contamination and ensure accurate measurement of the enteral feeding. Elevating the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees (choice A) is correct as it helps prevent aspiration during feeding. Testing the pH level of the residual (choice D) ensures proper placement of the tube. Withholding feeding if the residual is greater than 200mL (choice B) is crucial to prevent overfeeding, making this statement correct.

4. When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of morphine sulfate, what should the nurse check first?

• A. Temperature
• B. Respiratory status
• C. Pulse
• D. Urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving morphine sulfate via continuous intravenous infusion, the nurse's priority should be checking the client's respiratory status first. Morphine sulfate can lead to respiratory depression, emphasizing the need for close monitoring of breathing. While temperature, pulse, and urine output are all essential components of the assessment, ensuring adequate respiratory function takes precedence due to the potential risk of respiratory depression associated with morphine sulfate. Promptly assessing respiratory status enables early identification of any signs of respiratory distress or depression, allowing for immediate intervention if needed.

5. A client expresses anxiety about having magnetic resonance imaging performed. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. "You can receive a sedative to help you relax during the test."?
• B. "There is absolutely nothing to worry about."?
• C. "There is no discomfort with this test, so don't be anxious."?
• D. "The test won't last long, so you can handle it."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the client's anxiety and offers a practical solution to alleviate it, showing empathy and addressing the client's concerns. Offering a sedative to help relax during the test is a proactive approach to managing the client's anxiety. Choices B and C dismiss the client's feelings by invalidating their anxiety, which can further escalate their distress. Choice D downplays the client's feelings by implying they should not be worried, which does not effectively address the client's emotional state.

Similar Questions