Nursing Elites

1. What dietary alterations should a pregnant client with congenital heart disease expect?

• A. reduced calories and reduced fat
• B. caffeine and sodium restrictions
• C. decreased protein and increased complex carbohydrates
• D. fluid restriction and reduced calories

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a pregnant client with congenital heart disease, caffeine should be restricted as it can increase heart rate, which is already under stress due to pregnancy. Sodium restrictions may be necessary to prevent fluid retention, which can worsen the client's heart condition. Decreasing calories, fat, protein, or fluid may not be appropriate as these can lead to nutrient deficiencies or inadequate energy intake, which is crucial during pregnancy. Therefore, options A, C, and D are not the expected dietary alterations in the client's diet during pregnancy with congenital heart disease.

2. Which of the following microorganisms are considered normal body flora?

• A. staphylococcus on the skin
• B. streptococcus in the nares
• C. candida albicans in the vagina
• D. pseudomonas in the blood

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Staphylococcus is considered normal body flora as it is commonly found on the skin, being a part of the normal microbiota. While streptococcus in the nares can be part of the normal flora of the upper respiratory tract, it is not as common or as widespread as staphylococcus on the skin. Candida albicans in the vagina is not considered normal flora; it is a common opportunistic pathogen in the vagina. Pseudomonas in the blood is also not considered normal body flora; pseudomonas is not typically found in the blood as part of the normal microbiota.

3. During the change of shift, the oncoming nurse notes a discrepancy in the number of Percocet (Oxycodone) listed and the number present in the narcotic drawer. The nurse's first action should be to:

• A. Notify the hospital pharmacist
• B. Notify the nursing supervisor
• C. Notify the Board of Nursing
• D. Notify the director of nursing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action the nurse should take is to report the finding to the nursing supervisor and follow the chain of command. Notifying the nursing supervisor allows for immediate action within the facility to address the discrepancy. If it is found that the pharmacy is in error, then notifying the hospital pharmacist (Choice A) would be appropriate. Choices C and D, notifying the Board of Nursing and the director of nursing, are not the initial steps to take. These options may be necessary if theft is suspected or if the facility's internal response is inadequate. Therefore, they are incorrect answers.

4. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) works on an adult medical/surgical unit and has been pulled to work on the burn unit, which cares for clients of all ages. What should the LPN do?

• A. The LPN should take the assignment, but make it clear they will only care for adult clients.
• B. The LPN should take the assignment, but explain the situation to the charge nurse and ask for a quick orientation before starting.
• C. The LPN should refuse to take the assignment, as caring for the infant and child population is not within their scope of practice.
• D. The LPN should take the assignment, but ask to be paired with a more experienced LPN.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial for the LPN to demonstrate flexibility and a willingness to adapt to the new assignment that involves caring for clients of all ages. While the LPN may have expertise in a specific nursing area, it is essential to be able to provide care to diverse client populations. Accepting the assignment reflects a commitment to teamwork and patient care. However, to ensure safe and competent care, the LPN should communicate with the charge nurse about the situation. Requesting a quick orientation will help the LPN familiarize themselves with the burn unit's specific requirements, equipment, and protocols. This proactive approach allows the LPN to address any concerns, ask questions, and seek necessary support, ultimately ensuring the best care for all clients in the burn unit. Choice A is incorrect because limiting care to only adult clients may not be feasible in a unit that cares for clients of all ages. Choice C is incorrect as refusing the assignment outright may not be the best approach without considering alternatives. Choice D is not the most effective option as asking to be paired with a more experienced LPN does not address the need for a quick orientation to the new unit.

5. During an emergency procedure, is the surgical timeout a requirement?

• A. The surgical timeout should be performed by the surgical team unless it would cause a delay leading to injury or death.
• B. No, the timeout is not necessary during an emergency procedure.
• C. No, the surgical timeout is not required in emergency procedures.
• D. Yes, the surgical timeout must be performed in all cases.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an emergency procedure, the surgical timeout should be performed unless doing so would cause a delay leading to injury or death. This is because the primary goal during an emergency is to swiftly address the critical situation. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that the timeout is not necessary, which is not accurate. Choice C is also incorrect as it suggests that the timeout is not required in emergency procedures, disregarding safety protocols. Choice D is incorrect as it wrongly states that the timeout must be performed in all cases without considering the potential risks associated with delays during emergencies.

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